the nurse is assisting a client admitted to the hospital with pulmonary edema to prepare for discharge the nurse should reinforce with the client the
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

LPN Pharmacology

1. The client admitted to the hospital with pulmonary edema is preparing for discharge. The client should be reminded of the importance of complying with which measure to prevent a recurrence?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Monitoring weight daily, especially in the morning before breakfast, is crucial in detecting fluid retention early and preventing pulmonary edema. Sudden weight gain can indicate fluid accumulation, prompting timely intervention to prevent complications. Choice A is the correct answer because daily weight monitoring is a key component in managing heart failure and preventing pulmonary edema recurrence. Choices B and D are not directly related to preventing fluid retention or pulmonary edema recurrence. Choice C is unsafe as adjusting diuretic doses without healthcare provider guidance can lead to electrolyte imbalances and worsening of the condition.

2. A client with hypertension is prescribed metoprolol (Lopressor). The nurse should monitor the client for which side effect?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Metoprolol is a beta-blocker that works by slowing the heart rate. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for bradycardia, which is a potential side effect of metoprolol. Bradycardia refers to a heart rate that is slower than normal, and it can be a concern when administering medications like metoprolol that affect heart rate. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as tachycardia (fast heart rate), hypertension (high blood pressure), and hyperglycemia (high blood sugar) are not typically associated with metoprolol use. In fact, metoprolol is used to treat hypertension and certain heart conditions by lowering heart rate and blood pressure.

3. The healthcare provider notes this rhythm on the client's cardiac monitor. The healthcare provider next reports that the client is experiencing which heart rhythm?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, Atrial fibrillation. Atrial fibrillation is characterized by an irregular and often rapid heart rate, which can lead to poor blood flow due to ineffective contractions of the atria. Sinus bradycardia (Choice C) is a regular but slow heart rhythm originating from the sinus node. Normal sinus rhythm (Choice A) refers to a regular heartbeat originating from the sinus node. Ventricular fibrillation (Choice D) is a life-threatening arrhythmia characterized by rapid, uncoordinated contractions of the ventricles.

4. The client is receiving furosemide (Lasix) for heart failure. What potential side effect should the nurse monitor for?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, causes potassium loss, leading to hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial because hypokalemia can result in cardiac arrhythmias and muscle weakness. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because furosemide does not typically cause hyperkalemia, hypernatremia, or hypoglycemia.

5. The healthcare provider is monitoring a client with chronic stable angina. Which symptom would indicate that the client's condition is worsening?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Increased shortness of breath with exertion is a concerning symptom in a client with chronic stable angina as it may indicate inadequate oxygen supply to the heart muscle, suggesting a worsening condition. This could be a sign of reduced blood flow to the heart, leading to increased work for the heart during exertion, resulting in increased shortness of breath. Choice B, improved tolerance to activity, is incorrect as it would indicate a positive response to treatment. Choice C, decreased frequency of chest pain, is incorrect as it would also suggest an improvement in the client's condition. Choice D, stable blood pressure readings, are not indicative of a worsening condition in chronic stable angina.

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