Nursing Elites

1. A community health nurse is teaching a group of clients about first aid for different types of wounds. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I should apply clean dressings over blood-saturated dressings and hold pressure.
• B. I will rinse the wound with hot water to cleanse it.
• C. I can remove the dressing once the bleeding stops.
• D. I should apply antibiotic ointment directly to the wound.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because applying clean dressings over blood-saturated dressings and holding pressure helps prevent disruption of wound tissue, aiding in the clotting process and controlling bleeding. Choice B is incorrect as rinsing a wound with hot water can cause further tissue damage. Choice C is incorrect as the dressing should not be removed once applied as it can disrupt the formation of a clot. Choice D is incorrect as antibiotic ointment should not be applied directly to the wound during initial first aid.

2. A client is being educated by a nurse about the use of carbidopa-levodopa. Which of the following should be included?

• A. It will cure Parkinson's disease
• B. Monitor for dyskinesia
• C. It can be taken with food
• D. It is an opioid medication

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to 'Monitor for dyskinesia.' Carbidopa-levodopa can cause dyskinesia as a side effect, characterized by involuntary movements. Monitoring for this side effect is crucial. Choice A is incorrect because carbidopa-levodopa helps manage symptoms of Parkinson's disease but does not cure it. Choice C is incorrect because carbidopa-levodopa should be taken on an empty stomach to enhance absorption. Choice D is incorrect because carbidopa-levodopa is not an opioid medication.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who has a blood glucose level of 250 mg/dL. Which of the following clinical manifestations is associated with this finding?

• A. Confusion
• B. Thirst
• C. Diaphoresis
• D. Shakiness

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Corrected Detailed Rationale: A blood glucose level of 250 mg/dL indicates hyperglycemia. Thirst (polydipsia) is a common clinical manifestation associated with hyperglycemia. The body tries to compensate for the high blood sugar by increasing fluid intake. Confusion (choice A) is more commonly associated with hypoglycemia, not hyperglycemia. Diaphoresis (choice C) and shakiness (choice D) are typical manifestations of hypoglycemia, not hyperglycemia. Therefore, the correct answer is increased thirst (polydipsia) in response to the elevated blood glucose level.

4. A client with hepatic encephalopathy is being cared for by a nurse. Which food selection indicates the client understands dietary teaching?

• A. A sandwich and milkshake
• B. Rice with black beans
• C. Cottage cheese and tuna lettuce
• D. Three-egg omelet with low-sodium ham

Correct answer: B

Rationale: For clients with hepatic encephalopathy, foods high in protein like cottage cheese and tuna should be avoided. Plant-based protein sources like beans are recommended due to their lower ammonia production during digestion. Therefore, the correct choice is B. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they include high-protein or high-sodium foods that can worsen the condition of hepatic encephalopathy.

5. A nurse is teaching a client about the use of nitrofurantoin. Which of the following should be included?

• A. It can cause a brown discoloration of urine
• B. It should be taken with food
• C. It has no side effects
• D. It is safe during pregnancy

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Nitrofurantoin can cause a harmless brown discoloration of urine. Choice B is also correct as it should be taken with food to enhance absorption. Choice C is incorrect as nitrofurantoin does have side effects, such as gastrointestinal disturbances. Choice D is incorrect as nitrofurantoin is not recommended during the last month of pregnancy due to potential risks to the fetus.

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