Nursing Elites

1. The client has undergone a thyroidectomy, and the nurse is providing care. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Hoarseness and a sore throat.
• B. Difficulty swallowing.
• C. Numbness and tingling around the mouth.
• D. Temperature of 100.2°F (37.9°C).

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Numbness and tingling around the mouth can indicate hypocalcemia, a common complication post-thyroidectomy due to inadvertent parathyroid gland removal. Immediate intervention is required to prevent severe hypocalcemia manifestations like tetany or seizures. Hoarseness and a sore throat are common after a thyroidectomy due to surgical trauma and irritation to the vocal cords, not requiring immediate intervention. Difficulty swallowing can be expected due to postoperative swelling or edema, but it should be monitored closely. A temperature of 100.2°F is a mild fever and may be a normal postoperative response, not necessitating immediate intervention unless accompanied by other concerning symptoms.

2. A client with a history of diabetes mellitus presents with confusion, sweating, and palpitations. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Check the client's blood glucose level.
• B. Administer 10 units of insulin.
• C. Give the client a high-protein snack.
• D. Measure the client's blood pressure.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct first action for a client presenting with confusion, sweating, and palpitations, suggestive of hypoglycemia, is to check the client's blood glucose level. This step helps to confirm if the symptoms are due to low blood sugar levels and guides appropriate interventions. Administering insulin without knowing the current blood glucose level can be dangerous and is not recommended as the initial step. Offering a high-protein snack may be necessary after confirming hypoglycemia, but checking the blood glucose level takes precedence. Measuring blood pressure is not the priority in this situation; addressing hypoglycemia is the immediate concern.

3. A patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is prescribed erythropoietin. What is the primary action of this medication?

• A. Stimulate white blood cell production
• B. Increase platelet count
• C. Promote red blood cell production
• D. Enhance clotting factor production

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Erythropoietin primarily stimulates the bone marrow to produce more red blood cells, which helps to improve oxygen delivery to tissues. In chronic kidney disease, patients often develop anemia due to reduced erythropoietin production by the kidneys. By administering exogenous erythropoietin, the deficient hormone is replaced, leading to an increase in red blood cell production and subsequently improving the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood.

4. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving oxygen therapy. Which instruction should the nurse provide?

• A. Use oxygen continuously, even while sleeping.
• B. Adjust the oxygen flow rate to 5 liters per minute if short of breath.
• C. Report any signs of difficulty breathing immediately.
• D. Take off the oxygen while eating or drinking.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client with COPD receiving oxygen therapy is to use oxygen continuously, even while sleeping. This is important to ensure adequate oxygenation and optimal respiratory function for clients with COPD. Continuous oxygen therapy helps maintain oxygen levels during sleep, which is crucial for individuals with COPD who may experience nighttime hypoxemia. Therefore, advising the client to use oxygen continuously, even during sleep, is essential in managing COPD and preventing complications associated with oxygen deprivation.

5. An 82-year-old woman with no past medical history presents to your clinic complaining of arthritic symptoms. She is not taking any medications but needs something for her arthritis. You want to start her on a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) but are concerned about her age and the risk of peptic ulcers. As she has to pay for her medications out-of-pocket and requests the most cost-effective option, what is the most appropriate treatment plan?

• A. Prescribe an inexpensive NSAID alone
• B. Prescribe an inexpensive NSAID and misoprostol
• C. Prescribe celecoxib
• D. Prescribe an inexpensive NSAID and sucralfate

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the most appropriate treatment plan would be to prescribe an inexpensive NSAID alone. While the elderly woman is at a higher risk of developing NSAID-related toxicity, prophylaxis with misoprostol or sucralfate is not recommended in the absence of a history of peptic ulcer disease or abdominal symptoms. Celecoxib, a selective COX-2 inhibitor, may be a more expensive option than traditional NSAIDs. Considering the patient's preference for the most inexpensive option and the lack of specific risk factors, starting with a standalone NSAID is the most suitable approach.

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