the nurse is caring for a client who has undergone a thyroidectomy which assessment finding requires immediate intervention
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

ATI PN Adult Medical Surgical 2019

1. The client has undergone a thyroidectomy, and the nurse is providing care. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Numbness and tingling around the mouth can indicate hypocalcemia, a common complication post-thyroidectomy due to inadvertent parathyroid gland removal. Immediate intervention is required to prevent severe hypocalcemia manifestations like tetany or seizures. Hoarseness and a sore throat are common after a thyroidectomy due to surgical trauma and irritation to the vocal cords, not requiring immediate intervention. Difficulty swallowing can be expected due to postoperative swelling or edema, but it should be monitored closely. A temperature of 100.2°F is a mild fever and may be a normal postoperative response, not necessitating immediate intervention unless accompanied by other concerning symptoms.

2. In a patient with a history of chronic iron deficiency anemia requiring a recent blood transfusion and an extensive GI work-up, which statement is true based on their medications?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Taking even a low dose of aspirin per day, such as 81 mg, can reduce the protective effect on the gastrointestinal mucosa that is gained from using a COX II selective inhibitor. Aspirin can increase the risk of gastrointestinal bleeding, which can counteract the benefits of COX II inhibitors in protecting the stomach lining.

3. The client with bacterial pneumonia is receiving intravenous antibiotics. Which assessment finding indicates that the treatment is effective?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Clear lung sounds indicate that the antibiotics are effectively treating the bacterial pneumonia by resolving the infection and reducing the inflammation in the lungs, leading to improved air exchange and ventilation. Increased respiratory rate (Choice A) and decreased oxygen saturation (Choice B) are indicative of ongoing respiratory distress and ineffective treatment. Elevated white blood cell count (Choice D) suggests a persistent infection rather than effective treatment.

4. The nurse is providing an educational workshop about coronary artery disease (CAD) and its risk factors. The nurse explains to participants that CAD has many risk factors, some that can be controlled and some that cannot. What risk factors should the nurse list that can be controlled or modified?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Cholesterol levels, hypertension, and smoking are controllable risk factors for CAD. Managing these factors through lifestyle changes and medical interventions can help reduce the risk of developing coronary artery disease.

5. A client with chronic renal failure is prescribed erythropoietin (Epogen). Which outcome indicates that the medication is effective?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Improved hemoglobin levels. Erythropoietin (Epogen) stimulates red blood cell production, leading to an increase in hemoglobin levels in clients with chronic renal failure. Monitoring hemoglobin levels is crucial to assess the effectiveness of erythropoietin therapy in managing anemia associated with chronic renal failure. While increased urine output, decreased blood pressure, and stable potassium levels are important parameters to monitor in clients with renal failure, they are not direct indicators of the effectiveness of erythropoietin therapy.

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