Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor to determine the effectiveness of the medication?

• A. Platelet count.
• B. Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR).
• C. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT).
• D. Fibrinogen level.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) are essential laboratory tests to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin (Coumadin) therapy. These tests help assess the clotting time and the desired anticoagulant effect of the medication. Monitoring PT and INR levels is crucial to ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range, reducing the risk of bleeding or clotting complications associated with warfarin therapy. Platelet count (Choice A) measures the number of platelets in the blood and is not specific for monitoring warfarin therapy. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) (Choice C) is more commonly used to monitor heparin therapy, not warfarin. Fibrinogen level (Choice D) assesses the amount of fibrinogen in the blood and is not a specific test for monitoring warfarin therapy.

2. The sister of a patient diagnosed with BRCA gene-related breast cancer asks the nurse, 'Do you think I should be tested for the gene?' Which response by the nurse is most appropriate?

• A. In most cases, breast cancer is not caused by the BRCA gene.
• B. It depends on how you will feel if the test is positive for the BRCA gene.
• C. There are many things to consider before deciding to have genetic testing.
• D. You should decide first whether you are willing to have a bilateral mastectomy.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most appropriate response by the nurse is C: 'There are many things to consider before deciding to have genetic testing.' Genetic testing for BRCA gene mutations is a complex decision that involves various factors such as emotional readiness, potential impact on insurance and employability, and the implications of test results. Option A is incorrect because although most breast cancers are not related to BRCA gene mutations, individuals with these mutations have a significantly higher risk. Option B is not ideal as it oversimplifies the decision-making process by focusing solely on emotional aspects. Option D is incorrect as it implies a predetermined course of action (mastectomy) before even undergoing genetic testing, which is not appropriate.

3. Which problem in a client requires the most immediate intervention by the nurse?

• A. Finger paresthesias related to carpal tunnel syndrome.
• B. Increasing sharp pain related to compartment syndrome.
• C. Increasing burning pain related to a Morton's neuroma.
• D. Increasing sharp pain related to plantar fasciitis.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increasing sharp pain related to compartment syndrome. Compartment syndrome is a serious condition where increased pressure within a muscle compartment compromises circulation and can lead to tissue damage. Immediate intervention is crucial to prevent permanent damage to muscles and nerves, including tissue necrosis and nerve injury. Choices A, C, and D do not present the same level of urgency as compartment syndrome, making them less critical for immediate intervention. Carpal tunnel syndrome, Morton's neuroma, and plantar fasciitis may cause discomfort and functional limitations but are not typically considered emergencies requiring urgent intervention like compartment syndrome.

4. What is the best therapy for a 65-year-old man with symptoms of regurgitation, chest pain, dysphagia, weight loss, dilated esophagus, and an absent gastric air bubble on CXR?

• A. Proton-pump inhibitor
• B. Endoscopic balloon dilatation
• C. Sucralfate
• D. Esophageal resection

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The patient's presentation and radiologic findings are consistent with achalasia. The absence of a mass on upper endoscopy and CT scan helps rule out secondary causes. Achalasia is best managed with endoscopic balloon dilatation or myotomy. Proton-pump inhibitors are not effective for achalasia. Sucralfate is not a primary treatment for achalasia. Esophageal resection is only considered if malignancy develops. Patients with achalasia may experience chest pain and weight loss due to food accumulation in the dilated esophagus. Endoscopic balloon dilatation is a safe and effective treatment option for improving symptoms in achalasia patients.

5. A client with a history of peptic ulcer disease is admitted with severe abdominal pain. Which assessment finding should the nurse report to the healthcare provider immediately?

• A. Bowel sounds active in all quadrants.
• B. Blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg.
• C. Rigid, board-like abdomen.
• D. Heart rate of 90 beats per minute.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A rigid, board-like abdomen is a sign of peritonitis, a serious complication of peptic ulcer disease that can lead to sepsis and requires immediate intervention. This finding indicates a potential emergency situation that needs urgent medical attention to prevent further complications.

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