Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor to determine the effectiveness of the medication?

• A. Platelet count.
• B. Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR).
• C. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT).
• D. Fibrinogen level.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) are essential laboratory tests to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin (Coumadin) therapy. These tests help assess the clotting time and the desired anticoagulant effect of the medication. Monitoring PT and INR levels is crucial to ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range, reducing the risk of bleeding or clotting complications associated with warfarin therapy. Platelet count (Choice A) measures the number of platelets in the blood and is not specific for monitoring warfarin therapy. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) (Choice C) is more commonly used to monitor heparin therapy, not warfarin. Fibrinogen level (Choice D) assesses the amount of fibrinogen in the blood and is not a specific test for monitoring warfarin therapy.

2. A patient with atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin. Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor to assess the effectiveness of the medication?

• A. Complete blood count (CBC)
• B. Prothrombin time (PT)/INR
• C. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
• D. Serum potassium level

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Prothrombin time (PT)/INR. Warfarin affects the clotting ability of the blood by inhibiting vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. Monitoring the prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) is crucial to assess the effectiveness and safety of warfarin therapy. These tests help determine if the patient is within the desired anticoagulation range to prevent either clotting issues or excessive bleeding.

3. The healthcare provider formulates a nursing diagnosis of 'High risk for ineffective airway clearance' for a client with myasthenia gravis. What is the most likely cause for this nursing diagnosis?

• A. Pain during coughing.
• B. Diminished cough effort.
• C. Thick, dry secretions.
• D. Excessive inflammation.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Clients with myasthenia gravis commonly experience muscle weakness, including in the muscles used for coughing. This diminished cough effort can lead to ineffective airway clearance, increasing the risk of respiratory complications. Therefore, the most likely cause for the nursing diagnosis 'High risk for ineffective airway clearance' in a client with myasthenia gravis is the diminished cough effort due to muscle weakness.

4. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is experiencing respiratory distress. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Administer bronchodilators as prescribed.
• B. Encourage pursed-lip breathing.
• C. Position the client in a high Fowler's position.
• D. Obtain a stat arterial blood gas (ABG) sample.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client with COPD experiencing respiratory distress, the priority intervention should be to position the client in a high Fowler's position. This position helps optimize lung expansion, improve oxygenation, and reduce the work of breathing. Administering bronchodilators and encouraging pursed-lip breathing are important interventions but positioning the client to enhance respiratory function takes precedence in this situation. Obtaining an ABG sample may provide valuable information but is not the initial priority when addressing respiratory distress.

5. In a patient with a history of chronic iron deficiency anemia requiring a recent blood transfusion and an extensive GI work-up, which statement is true based on their medications?

• A. A dedicated small bowel series has a high likelihood of being positive
• B. 81 mg of aspirin per day decreases the benefit of using a COX II inhibitor
• C. The patient should have a provocative arteriogram with heparin infusion to identify the source of blood loss
• D. Hormonal therapy has been shown to be effective in decreasing blood loss due to arteriovenous malformations

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Taking even a low dose of aspirin per day, such as 81 mg, can reduce the protective effect on the gastrointestinal mucosa that is gained from using a COX II selective inhibitor. Aspirin can increase the risk of gastrointestinal bleeding, which can counteract the benefits of COX II inhibitors in protecting the stomach lining.

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