Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor to determine the effectiveness of the medication?

• A. Platelet count.
• B. Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR).
• C. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT).
• D. Fibrinogen level.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) are essential laboratory tests to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin (Coumadin) therapy. These tests help assess the clotting time and the desired anticoagulant effect of the medication. Monitoring PT and INR levels is crucial to ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range, reducing the risk of bleeding or clotting complications associated with warfarin therapy. Platelet count (Choice A) measures the number of platelets in the blood and is not specific for monitoring warfarin therapy. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) (Choice C) is more commonly used to monitor heparin therapy, not warfarin. Fibrinogen level (Choice D) assesses the amount of fibrinogen in the blood and is not a specific test for monitoring warfarin therapy.

2. A 45-year-old man with a history of chronic heartburn presents with progressive difficulty swallowing solids and liquids. He has lost 10 pounds in the past two months. What is the most likely diagnosis?

• A. Esophageal stricture
• B. Esophageal cancer
• C. Achalasia
• D. Peptic ulcer disease

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the patient's presentation of progressive dysphagia to both solids and liquids, along with significant weight loss, is concerning for esophageal cancer. The history of chronic heartburn further raises suspicion as chronic gastroesophageal reflux disease is a risk factor for the development of esophageal adenocarcinoma. Esophageal stricture could cause dysphagia but is less likely to be associated with significant weight loss. Achalasia typically presents with dysphagia to solids more than liquids and does not commonly cause weight loss. Peptic ulcer disease is less likely to lead to progressive dysphagia and significant weight loss compared to esophageal cancer.

3. Aspirin is prescribed for a 9-year-old child with rheumatic fever to control the inflammatory process, promote comfort, and reduce fever. What intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?

• A. Instruct the parents to hold the aspirin until the child has first had a tepid sponge bath.
• B. Administer the aspirin with at least two ounces of water or juice.
• C. Notify the healthcare provider if the child complains of ringing in the ears.
• D. Advise the parents to question the child about seeing yellow halos around objects.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In children, ringing in the ears (tinnitus) can be a sign of aspirin toxicity. Aspirin toxicity can be particularly concerning in children and can lead to serious complications. Therefore, it is crucial for the nurse to prioritize monitoring for signs of aspirin toxicity, such as tinnitus, and promptly notify the healthcare provider if such symptoms occur.

4. A 35-year-old woman presents with fatigue, weight gain, and cold intolerance. Laboratory tests reveal high TSH and low free T4 levels. What is the most likely diagnosis?

• A. Hypothyroidism
• B. Hyperthyroidism
• C. Thyroiditis
• D. Thyroid cancer

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The scenario describes a 35-year-old woman with symptoms of fatigue, weight gain, and cold intolerance along with high TSH and low free T4 levels. These findings are consistent with the diagnosis of hypothyroidism. In hypothyroidism, there is decreased thyroid hormone production leading to elevated TSH levels as the body tries to stimulate the thyroid to produce more hormone. The low free T4 levels indicate insufficient thyroid hormone in the blood, which can manifest as symptoms such as fatigue, weight gain, and cold intolerance.

5. What is the primary action of a short-acting beta2-agonist (SABA) prescribed to a patient with an acute asthma exacerbation?

• A. Reduce inflammation
• B. Relieve bronchospasm
• C. Thin respiratory secretions
• D. Suppress cough

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Relieve bronchospasm. The primary action of short-acting beta2-agonists (SABAs) is to relieve bronchospasm. These medications are bronchodilators that work by opening the airways, making breathing easier for patients experiencing asthma exacerbations. By relieving bronchospasm, SABAs help improve airflow and alleviate symptoms of asthma such as wheezing and shortness of breath. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because SABAs do not primarily reduce inflammation, thin respiratory secretions, or suppress cough. While these actions may be part of asthma management, the immediate goal of using a SABA during an acute exacerbation is to quickly relieve bronchospasm and improve airflow.

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