Nursing Elites

1. A 3-month-old is hospitalized with a fractured femur. The pain assessment tool most appropriate for this child is the:

• A. FLACC scale.
• B. Poker chip tool.
• C. Number scale.
• D. Visual analog scale.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The FLACC scale is a validated pain assessment tool suitable for infants and young children, including 3-month-olds. It assesses pain based on five categories: Face, Legs, Activity, Cry, and Consolability. Since infants cannot communicate their pain verbally, the FLACC scale is effective in evaluating pain by observing these behavioral indicators. The other options, such as the Poker chip tool, Number scale, and Visual analog scale, are not specifically designed for infants and may not provide accurate pain assessment in this age group.

2. You arrive at the scene shortly after a 3-year-old female experienced a seizure. The child, who is being held by her mother, is conscious and crying. The mother tells you that her daughter has been ill recently and has a temperature of 102.5°F. What is the MOST appropriate treatment for this child?

• A. Oxygen via non-rebreathing mask, place the child in a tub of cold water to lower her body temperature, and transport.
• B. Oxygen via the blow-by technique, transport, and request a paramedic intercept so an anticonvulsant drug can be given.
• C. Oxygen via non-rebreathing mask, avoid any measures to lower the child's body temperature, and transport at once.
• D. Oxygen via the blow-by technique, remove clothing to help reduce her fever, and transport with continuous monitoring.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most appropriate treatment for a child who has experienced a seizure and has a fever includes administering oxygen via the blow-by technique, removing clothing to help reduce fever, and transporting the child with continuous monitoring. Choice A is incorrect because placing the child in a tub of cold water can lead to hypothermia and is not recommended for fever reduction. Choice B is incorrect as requesting an anticonvulsant drug without proper evaluation and assessment by a healthcare provider is not appropriate. Choice C is incorrect as avoiding measures to lower the child's body temperature can worsen the situation in case of febrile seizures. Therefore, the best course of action is to provide oxygen via the blow-by technique, remove excess clothing to reduce fever, and transport the child while continuously monitoring her condition.

3. The word hormone is derived from the Greek 'hormao' meaning 'I excite or arouse'. Hormones communicate this effect by their unique chemical structures recognized by specific receptors on their target cells, by their patterns of secretion, and their concentrations in the general or local circulation. Which of the following is NOT a function of hormones?

• A. Producing new offspring
• B. Promoting growth and beauty
• C. Maintaining body temperature
• D. Fighting infections

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The function of producing new offspring is not attributed to hormones. Hormones primarily regulate various physiological processes in the body such as growth, metabolism, reproduction, and immune response, but they do not directly play a role in producing offspring.

4. What is the reason for Asthma in 4-year-old Mabele, as Mrs. Joyce Thomson inquires? How would you explain it?

• A. Asthma occurs due to inflammation of the respiratory tract triggered by infections.
• B. An asthmatic attack can occur when the child is exposed to certain allergens, triggering an allergic reaction in the bronchioles that causes bronchial constriction.
• C. An asthmatic attack is a response to the release of inflammatory mediators to epithelial cells, affecting the autonomic neural control of the airway.
• D. Asthma is not an inborn problem; it involves abnormal growth of the bronchial tree causing restriction.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Asthma in children like Mabele can be triggered by exposure to allergens, leading to an allergic reaction in the bronchioles. This reaction causes constriction of the bronchial tree, resulting in an asthmatic attack. It is essential for caregivers to identify and minimize exposure to these triggers to manage and prevent asthma episodes effectively.

5. Which of the following is MOST likely to occur in conjunction with a breech presentation?

• A. Vertex presentation
• B. Maternal hypertension
• C. Prolapsed umbilical cord
• D. Premature rupture of the amniotic sac

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a breech presentation, where the baby's buttocks or feet present first, there is an increased risk of the umbilical cord slipping down alongside or below the presenting part, leading to a prolapsed umbilical cord. This is a serious complication that can compromise fetal blood flow and oxygenation, necessitating prompt intervention to prevent adverse outcomes. Choices A, B, and D are less likely to occur in conjunction with a breech presentation. Vertex presentation is the normal head-first presentation, maternal hypertension is a separate condition that may not be directly related to fetal presentation, and premature rupture of the amniotic sac can happen independently of the baby's presentation.

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