Nursing Elites

1. When using the Ballard gestational assessment tool on a newborn, which of the following tests should be performed after the first hour of birth, allowing the newborn to recover from the stress of birth?

• A. Arm recoil
• B. Square window sign
• C. Scarf sign
• D. Popliteal angle

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Arm recoil. Arm recoil is slower in healthy but fatigued newborns after birth, making it best elicited after the first hour of birth when the baby has had time to recover from the stress of birth. This assessment helps evaluate neuromuscular maturity in newborns and is more accurate when performed after the initial recovery period. The other choices, Square window sign, Scarf sign, and Popliteal angle, are not specifically assessed using the Ballard gestational assessment tool and do not relate to the recovery period after birth.

2. A postpartum client asks the nurse about resuming sexual activity. What is the nurse's best response?

• A. You can resume sexual activity as soon as you feel ready.
• B. It is best to wait until your postpartum check-up before resuming sexual activity.
• C. You should wait at least 6 weeks before resuming sexual activity.
• D. It is safe to resume sexual activity once your lochia has stopped.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The best response for the nurse is to advise the postpartum client to wait until the postpartum check-up before resuming sexual activity. This allows for complete healing to ensure the client's well-being and provides an opportunity to address any concerns with the healthcare provider. Choice A is incorrect because resuming sexual activity should be based on medical advice rather than personal readiness. Choice C is incorrect as the 6-week recommendation is a general guideline but individual circumstances may vary. Choice D is incorrect as the cessation of lochia is not the sole indicator for safe resumption of sexual activity.

3. A child is being admitted to the hospital for probable pneumonia. The nurse asks what the parents have done at home for this illness. The parent comments that they have given the child a tea made up of herbs that a neighbor recommended. The parents ask if that is a safe thing to do. The most appropriate response for the nurse is:

• A. Sure, if it doesn't make the child worse, it could help.
• B. Of course, teas are rarely harmful.
• C. It might be safe for adults, but research might not have been conducted on the effects on children.
• D. Absolutely not, herbal teas are not appropriate for children.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most appropriate response is C: 'It might be safe for adults, but research might not have been conducted on the effects on children.' This response acknowledges the potential differences in the effects of herbal teas on adults versus children and highlights the importance of considering the lack of specific research on this topic when it comes to pediatric care. Choice A is incorrect because assuming something is safe without evidence can be risky in a pediatric setting. Choice B is also incorrect as it oversimplifies the safety of herbal teas. Choice D is too definitive and does not consider the possibility that herbal teas might have different effects on children than on adults.

4. When assessing a geriatric patient who has possibly experienced an acute ischemic stroke, which of the following questions would be MOST appropriate to ask?

• A. When did you first notice the symptoms?
• B. Do you have a history of high blood pressure?
• C. What medications do you take and why?
• D. Have you previously had a heart attack?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most appropriate question to ask when assessing a geriatric patient who may have experienced an acute ischemic stroke is when the symptoms were first noticed. This information is crucial for determining the time window for potential treatments like thrombolytic therapy, as prompt intervention is necessary for stroke management. Option B is not as relevant in the acute assessment of stroke, though important for overall health history. Option C is important but may not be as time-sensitive as determining symptom onset. Option D focuses on a different cardiac event, not directly related to the current concern of a possible stroke.

5. A 30-year-old woman is 22 weeks pregnant with her first child. She tells you that her rings are not fitting as loosely as they usually do and that her ankles are swollen. Her blood pressure is 150/86 mm Hg. She is MOST likely experiencing:

• A. a condition unrelated to pregnancy.
• B. gestational diabetes.
• C. a hypertensive emergency.
• D. preeclampsia.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The symptoms of swollen ankles, tight rings, and elevated blood pressure in a pregnant woman at 22 weeks gestation are concerning for preeclampsia. Preeclampsia is characterized by high blood pressure and signs of organ damage, commonly seen with symptoms such as swelling (edema) and protein in the urine. It is crucial to monitor and manage preeclampsia promptly as it can lead to severe complications for both the mother and the baby.

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