Nursing Elites

1. Sometimes, people with congestive heart failure develop arrhythmias of the heart. These irregular rhythms can be conducive to developing a blood clot. Physicians frequently treat people with 'blood thinning' medicines that require regulation of the density of the blood. Which of these is the name for a blood-thinner?

• A. Erythromycin
• B. Tetracycline
• C. Warfarin
• D. Amoxicillin

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Warfarin is a medication commonly used as a blood thinner to prevent blood clot formation. It works by inhibiting the clotting factors in the blood, thereby reducing the risk of clot formation and helping in the management of conditions like congestive heart failure and arrhythmias. Choices A, B, and D are antibiotics and do not have blood-thinning properties like Warfarin.

2. The nurse is preparing new parents for discharge with their newborn. The father asks the nurse why the baby's head is so pointed and puffy-looking. What is the best response by the nurse?

• A. His head is molded from fitting through the birth canal. It will become more round.
• B. We refer to that as 'cone head,' which is a temporary condition that goes away.
• C. It might mean that your baby sustained brain damage during birth, and could have delays.
• D. I think he looks just like you. Your head is much the same shape as your baby's.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The corrected response 'His head is molded from fitting through the birth canal. It will become more round.' is the best answer as it explains the physiological reason for the baby's appearance after birth. It reassures the father that the pointed and puffy-looking head is a normal part of the birthing process and will resolve on its own. Choice B is incorrect because while 'cone head' is a term used colloquially, it does not provide a detailed explanation. Choice C is incorrect and should be avoided as it introduces unnecessary worry by suggesting brain damage. Choice D is not an appropriate response as it doesn't address the father's concern or provide accurate information about newborn physiology.

3. How will a ventricular septal defect affect blood flow?

• A. Blood will shunt left to right, causing increased pulmonary flow and no cyanosis.
• B. Blood will shunt right to left, causing decreased pulmonary flow and cyanosis.
• C. No shunting occurs due to high pressure in the left ventricle.
• D. Increased pressure in the left atrium hinders the circulation of oxygenated blood in the circulating volume.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A ventricular septal defect allows blood to shunt left to right, leading to increased pulmonary flow. This results in oxygenated blood mixing with deoxygenated blood, causing no cyanosis as the mixed blood is still oxygenated. The shunting from left to right overloads the pulmonary circulation, leading to increased pulmonary flow. Choice B is incorrect because blood does not shunt right to left in a ventricular septal defect. Choice C is incorrect as shunting does occur due to the pressure differences between the ventricles. Choice D is incorrect because the defect affects the ventricles, not the atrium, and does not hinder the circulation of oxygenated blood in the circulating volume.

4. Which of the following is a more reliable indicator of perfusion in children than in adults?

• A. Blood pressure
• B. Heart rate
• C. Respiratory rate
• D. Capillary refill

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Capillary refill is a more reliable indicator of perfusion in children than in adults. This is because children have more compliant vessels, making capillary refill a more sensitive indicator of perfusion status in this population. In contrast, while blood pressure, heart rate, and respiratory rate are important indicators, they may not be as reliable in children as capillary refill. Blood pressure can be affected by various factors such as anxiety or pain, heart rate can be influenced by emotions or temperature, and respiratory rate may vary with activity levels. Therefore, capillary refill is preferred in children for a more accurate assessment of perfusion.

5. A 30-year-old woman is 22 weeks pregnant with her first child. She tells you that her rings are not fitting as loosely as they usually do and that her ankles are swollen. Her blood pressure is 150/86 mm Hg. She is MOST likely experiencing:

• A. a condition unrelated to pregnancy.
• B. gestational diabetes.
• C. a hypertensive emergency.
• D. preeclampsia.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The symptoms of swollen ankles, tight rings, and elevated blood pressure in a pregnant woman at 22 weeks gestation are concerning for preeclampsia. Preeclampsia is characterized by high blood pressure and signs of organ damage, commonly seen with symptoms such as swelling (edema) and protein in the urine. It is crucial to monitor and manage preeclampsia promptly as it can lead to severe complications for both the mother and the baby.

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