Nursing Elites

1. A 28-year-old woman presents with abdominal pain, diarrhea, and rectal bleeding. She has a history of similar episodes in the past. What is the most likely diagnosis?

• A. Ulcerative colitis
• B. Irritable bowel syndrome
• C. Celiac disease
• D. Diverticulitis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The constellation of symptoms including abdominal pain, diarrhea, and rectal bleeding in a young woman with a history of similar episodes is highly suggestive of ulcerative colitis. This chronic inflammatory condition primarily affects the colon and rectum, leading to symptoms such as bloody diarrhea, abdominal pain, and urgency. The recurrent nature of her symptoms and the presence of rectal bleeding further support this diagnosis over other conditions listed, such as irritable bowel syndrome, celiac disease, or diverticulitis, which typically do not present with the same combination of symptoms and history.

2. A patient with depression is prescribed fluoxetine. What is an important side effect for the nurse to monitor?

• A. Weight gain
• B. Bradycardia
• C. Dry mouth
• D. Suicidal thoughts

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a patient with depression is prescribed fluoxetine, the nurse should be vigilant for the potential side effect of increased risk of suicidal thoughts. Fluoxetine, like other antidepressants, may elevate the risk of suicidal thoughts, particularly during the initial phases of treatment. Monitoring the patient for any indications of heightened depression or suicidal ideation is crucial to ensure appropriate interventions are implemented promptly.

3. A 45-year-old woman presents with fatigue, weight gain, and constipation. Laboratory tests reveal high TSH and low free T4 levels. What is the most likely diagnosis?

• A. Hypothyroidism
• B. Hyperthyroidism
• C. Thyroiditis
• D. Thyroid cancer

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The combination of high TSH and low free T4 levels is consistent with hypothyroidism, which matches the patient's symptoms of fatigue, weight gain, and constipation. In hypothyroidism, the thyroid gland does not produce enough thyroid hormones, leading to a decrease in metabolic rate and resulting in these clinical findings.

4. What is the primary action of amlodipine when prescribed to a patient with hypertension?

• A. Increase heart rate
• B. Reduce blood pressure
• C. Lower cholesterol levels
• D. Decrease blood sugar levels

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Amlodipine is a calcium channel blocker that works by relaxing the blood vessels, leading to a reduction in blood pressure. This medication does not increase heart rate, lower cholesterol levels, or decrease blood sugar levels.

5. A 35-year-old male patient presents with right upper quadrant pain, fever for the past 48 hours, preceded by new onset jaundice over the past few weeks. He states that he has had diarrhea on and off for several years but never had this investigated. A liver ultrasound is negative for gallstones or evidence of cholecystitis. His lab tests reveal total bilirubin 6.2, alkaline phosphatase 450, AST 150, ALT 120, albumin 2.6. The next diagnostic test of choice would be

• A. Liver biopsy
• B. Magnetic resonance cholangiopancreatography
• C. Hepatitis B surface antigen and hepatitis C RNA assay
• D. Colonoscopy with biopsies

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The patient's presentation with right upper quadrant pain, fever, and jaundice, along with abnormal liver function tests, suggests a biliary tract problem. Given the suspicion of obstructed bile flow and the negative liver ultrasound for gallstones, magnetic resonance cholangiopancreatography (MRCP) is the next appropriate step to evaluate the biliary system and pancreatic ducts. MRCP is non-invasive and can provide detailed images for diagnosis. Liver biopsy is not the preferred initial diagnostic test in this context. Testing for hepatitis B and C would not address the current clinical scenario, and colonoscopy is not indicated for the presenting symptoms.

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