Nursing Elites

1. A patient with chronic heart failure is prescribed furosemide. What is the primary action of this medication?

• A. Increase cardiac output
• B. Reduce fluid retention
• C. Decrease heart rate
• D. Lower blood pressure

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that acts by inhibiting sodium and chloride reabsorption in the loop of Henle, leading to increased diuresis. By reducing fluid retention, furosemide helps decrease the workload on the heart in patients with chronic heart failure. This medication does not directly increase cardiac output, decrease heart rate, or lower blood pressure as its primary action.

2. What is the primary action of amlodipine when prescribed to a patient with hypertension?

• A. Increase heart rate
• B. Reduce blood pressure
• C. Lower cholesterol levels
• D. Decrease blood sugar levels

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Amlodipine is a calcium channel blocker that works by relaxing the blood vessels, leading to a reduction in blood pressure. This medication does not increase heart rate, lower cholesterol levels, or decrease blood sugar levels.

3. Following a CVA, the nurse assesses that a client developed dysphagia, hypoactive bowel sounds, and a firm, distended abdomen. Which prescription for the client should the nurse question?

• A. Continuous tube feeding at 65 ml/hr via gastrostomy.
• B. Total parenteral nutrition to be infused at 125 ml/hour.
• C. Nasogastric tube connected to low intermittent suction.
• D. Metoclopramide (Reglan) intermittent piggyback.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client with dysphagia, hypoactive bowel sounds, and a firm, distended abdomen post-CVA, continuous tube feeding at 65 ml/hr via gastrostomy may exacerbate abdominal distension and hypoactive bowel sounds. This situation requires immediate assessment and reevaluation before continuing with the prescription.

4. A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory value indicates a therapeutic effect of the medication?

• A. INR of 2.5.
• B. PTT of 45 seconds.
• C. Hemoglobin of 12 g/dL.
• D. Platelet count of 150,000/mm³.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An INR (International Normalized Ratio) of 2.5 indicates a therapeutic level for clients receiving warfarin (Coumadin) to prevent thromboembolism. It is essential to monitor INR levels regularly when on warfarin therapy to ensure that the blood's ability to clot is within the desired range to prevent both clotting and excessive bleeding.

5. A client with severe rheumatoid arthritis is experiencing joint pain and stiffness. Which intervention should the nurse implement to help relieve the client's symptoms?

• A. Apply cold packs to the affected joints.
• B. Encourage passive range-of-motion exercises.
• C. Administer a muscle relaxant.
• D. Provide a high-calorie diet.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Encouraging passive range-of-motion exercises is the most appropriate intervention to help relieve symptoms of joint pain and stiffness in clients with severe rheumatoid arthritis. These exercises help maintain joint mobility, prevent muscle contractures, and reduce stiffness in the affected joints. Passive range-of-motion exercises can also improve circulation to the joints, promoting healing and reducing pain. Applying cold packs may help with inflammation and pain temporarily, but it does not address the long-term joint mobility issues associated with rheumatoid arthritis. Muscle relaxants are not typically indicated for managing joint pain and stiffness in rheumatoid arthritis. While nutrition is important for overall health, providing a high-calorie diet is not a direct intervention for relieving joint pain and stiffness in this context.

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