a nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for clopidogrel the nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment A

1. A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for clopidogrel. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bleeding. Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication that works by preventing platelets from sticking together and forming clots. Therefore, one of the main adverse effects of clopidogrel is an increased risk of bleeding. Insomnia (Choice A), hypotension (Choice B), and constipation (Choice D) are not commonly associated with clopidogrel use. Monitoring for signs of bleeding, such as easy bruising, petechiae, or prolonged bleeding from minor cuts, is crucial when a client is taking clopidogrel.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has been taking isoniazid and rifampin for 3 weeks for the treatment of active pulmonary tuberculosis (TB). The client reports his urine is an orange color. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Rifampin can turn body fluids orange.' Rifampin is known to cause orange discoloration of body fluids, including urine. This side effect is harmless and does not indicate a need to stop the medication. Choice A is incorrect because stopping isoniazid will not resolve the orange urine discoloration caused by rifampin. Choice C is unnecessary at this point since the orange urine is a known side effect of rifampin and does not require an urgent provider visit. Choice D is incorrect because bladder irritation is not typically associated with isoniazid.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for enalapril. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects of this medication?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hypotension. Enalapril, an ACE inhibitor, can lead to hypotension, especially after the first dose. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because enalapril is not typically associated with ecchymosis, jaundice, or hypokalemia as common adverse effects. Therefore, the nurse should primarily monitor the client for signs of hypotension.

4. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory values for a client who is receiving a continuous IV heparin infusion and has an aPTT of 90 seconds. Which of the following actions should the nurse prepare to take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An aPTT of 90 seconds is elevated, indicating a risk of bleeding due to excessive anticoagulation. The appropriate action is to reduce the infusion rate of heparin to prevent further complications. Administering vitamin K is not indicated for an elevated aPTT due to heparin therapy. Giving the client a low-dose aspirin can further increase the risk of bleeding when combined with heparin. Requesting an INR is not necessary for monitoring heparin therapy; aPTT is the more specific test for assessing heparin's therapeutic effect. Therefore, the correct action for the nurse to prepare to take is to reduce the infusion rate of heparin.

5. A client with gout is prescribed allopurinol. The nurse should instruct the client to discontinue taking the medication for which of the following adverse effects?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Fever. Fever can indicate a serious hypersensitivity reaction to allopurinol, known as allopurinol hypersensitivity syndrome, which can be severe and even life-threatening. Nausea and drowsiness are common side effects of allopurinol but not necessarily indications to discontinue the medication. Metallic taste is not typically associated with allopurinol use. Therefore, the nurse should emphasize to the client the importance of reporting any signs of fever promptly for further evaluation and management.

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