ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment A
1. A nurse is providing teaching to a newly licensed nurse about caring for a client who has a prescription for gemfibrozil. The nurse should instruct the newly licensed nurse to monitor which of the following laboratory tests?
- A. Platelet count
- B. Electrolyte levels
- C. Thyroid function
- D. Liver function
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Liver function. Gemfibrozil can lead to hepatotoxicity, making it crucial to monitor liver function tests. Monitoring platelet count (choice A) is not specifically indicated for gemfibrozil. Electrolyte levels (choice B) and thyroid function (choice C) are not directly affected by gemfibrozil, so they are not the primary laboratory tests to monitor in this case.
2. A nurse is reviewing laboratory values for a client who reports fatigue and cold intolerance. The client has an increased thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) level and a decreased total T3 and T4 level. The nurse should anticipate a prescription for which of the following medications?
- A. Methimazole
- B. Somatropin
- C. Levothyroxine
- D. Propylthiouracil
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Levothyroxine is the correct answer. In this scenario, the client's elevated TSH and decreased T3 and T4 levels indicate hypothyroidism, a condition where the thyroid gland does not produce enough hormones. Levothyroxine is a synthetic form of thyroid hormone that is used to replace or supplement the body's naturally produced thyroid hormones. Methimazole and Propylthiouracil are used to treat hyperthyroidism by reducing the production of thyroid hormones. Somatropin is a growth hormone used to treat growth hormone deficiency and other conditions unrelated to thyroid disorders.
3. A nurse is administering insulin glulisine 10 units subcutaneously at 0730 to an adolescent client who has type 1 diabetes mellitus. The nurse should anticipate the onset of action of the insulin at which of the following times?
- A. 0745
- B. 0700
- C. 0645
- D. 0457
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Insulin glulisine has a rapid onset of action, typically around 15 minutes. Therefore, the nurse should expect the onset around 0745. Choice A is correct as it aligns with the expected onset time. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not match the typical onset time of insulin glulisine.
4. A client with peptic ulcer disease reports a headache. Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to administer?
- A. Ibuprofen
- B. Naproxen
- C. Aspirin
- D. Acetaminophen
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Acetaminophen is the preferred analgesic for clients with peptic ulcer disease because it does not cause gastrointestinal irritation, unlike Ibuprofen, Naproxen, and Aspirin, which can exacerbate peptic ulcer symptoms and lead to gastrointestinal complications.
5. A nurse in an outpatient facility is assessing a client who is prescribed furosemide 40mg daily, but the client reports she has been taking extra doses to promote weight loss. Which of the following indicates she is dehydrated?
- A. Urine specific gravity of 1.035
- B. Urine specific gravity of 444
- C. Urine specific gravity of 2000
- D. Urine specific gravity of 1111.1
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A urine specific gravity greater than 1.030 indicates dehydration. In this case, a urine specific gravity of 1.035 suggests concentrated urine, indicating dehydration. Choices B, C, and D have values that are not within the normal range for urine specific gravity and do not indicate dehydration. A urine specific gravity of 444, 2000, or 1111.1 are not physiologically possible values and are therefore incorrect.
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