Nursing Elites

1. A client has been prescribed amlodipine for hypertension. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse instruct the client to report?

• A. Dry cough
• B. Dizziness
• C. Rash
• D. Headache

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Dizziness.' Amlodipine, a calcium channel blocker used for hypertension, can cause dizziness due to its blood pressure-lowering effects. It is crucial for clients to report dizziness to their healthcare provider as it may indicate hypotension. Dry cough (choice A) is more commonly associated with ACE inhibitors, rash (choice C) may be seen in allergic reactions, and headache (choice D) is a less common side effect of amlodipine.

2. A client is receiving oxytocin to augment labor. The contractions are occurring every 45 seconds, and the fetal heart rate is 170-180 beats/min. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Increase the oxytocin infusion
• B. Decrease the oxytocin infusion
• C. Discontinue the oxytocin infusion
• D. Maintain the oxytocin infusion

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When contractions occur every 45 seconds with a high fetal heart rate, it indicates uterine hyperstimulation and fetal distress. In this situation, the oxytocin infusion should be discontinued immediately to prevent further complications. Increasing or maintaining the infusion would worsen the hyperstimulation and distress. Decreasing the infusion may not be sufficient to address the current situation and could still lead to complications.

3. A nurse in a clinic is caring for a patient who has a UTI. What prescription should the nurse verify with a provider?

• A. Ciprofloxacin
• B. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
• C. Oxybutynin
• D. Nitrofurantoin

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Oxybutynin. Oxybutynin is an anticholinergic used to treat overactive bladder, not a UTI. The nurse should verify this prescription because it may not be appropriate for a UTI. Choices A, B, and D are antibiotics commonly used in the treatment of UTIs. Ciprofloxacin, trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole, and nitrofurantoin are more suitable choices for the treatment of a UTI compared to oxybutynin.

4. A nurse is assessing a client who has Parkinson's disease. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect?

• A. Pruritus
• B. Hypertension
• C. Bradykinesia
• D. Xerostomia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bradykinesia. Bradykinesia, which refers to slowness of movement, is a characteristic symptom of Parkinson's disease. Other common manifestations in Parkinson's disease include tremors, muscle rigidity, orthostatic hypotension, and drooling. Pruritus (choice A) is unrelated to Parkinson's disease. While hypertension (choice B) can coexist with Parkinson's disease due to autonomic dysfunction, it is not a specific hallmark manifestation. Xerostomia (choice D) is not a primary symptom associated with Parkinson's disease.

5. A healthcare professional is planning a community education program about colorectal cancer. Which of the following risk factors should the professional identify as modifiable?

• A. Family history
• B. Smoking
• C. Age
• D. Gender

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Smoking. Smoking is a modifiable risk factor for colorectal cancer. It is within an individual's control to quit smoking, thereby reducing their risk of developing colorectal cancer. Choices A, C, and D are non-modifiable risk factors. Family history, age, and gender are factors that individuals cannot change or control. While family history can influence risk, it is not something that can be modified. Age and gender are also non-modifiable factors when it comes to colorectal cancer risk.

Similar Questions