a client has been prescribed amlodipine for hypertension which of the following adverse effects should the nurse instruct the client to report
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PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 A with NGN

1. A client has been prescribed amlodipine for hypertension. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse instruct the client to report?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Dizziness.' Amlodipine, a calcium channel blocker used for hypertension, can cause dizziness due to its blood pressure-lowering effects. It is crucial for clients to report dizziness to their healthcare provider as it may indicate hypotension. Dry cough (choice A) is more commonly associated with ACE inhibitors, rash (choice C) may be seen in allergic reactions, and headache (choice D) is a less common side effect of amlodipine.

2. A nurse is preparing to administer a dose of enoxaparin. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to give enoxaparin in the abdomen. Enoxaparin is usually administered subcutaneously in the abdomen to avoid muscle irritation. Choice A is incorrect because enoxaparin should not be administered intramuscularly. Choice B is incorrect as monitoring APTT levels is not directly related to administering enoxaparin. Choice D is incorrect as enoxaparin should be administered slowly to prevent bruising or bleeding at the injection site.

3. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer ceftriaxone. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Correct Answer: B. Ceftriaxone should be reconstituted with sterile water, not saline. Reconstituting it with normal saline can result in a chemical interaction and precipitation of the drug. Administering the medication over 30 minutes (choice C) is not necessary as ceftriaxone is usually given as an intravenous bolus or drip over a shorter period. Monitoring for signs of toxicity (choice D) is important but not the immediate action required for preparing the medication. The priority is to ensure proper reconstitution with the appropriate solvent, which is sterile water.

4. A nurse is caring for a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which of the following should the nurse assess for?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client with COPD, the nurse should assess for the use of accessory muscles. This is important because COPD can lead to increased work of breathing, causing the client to engage accessory muscles to help with respiration. Assessing for the use of accessory muscles provides crucial information about the client's respiratory effort. Respiratory rate (Choice A) is a standard assessment parameter but may not specifically indicate the severity of COPD. Chest pain (Choice B) is not typically associated with COPD unless there are complicating factors. Oxygen saturation (Choice D) is essential to monitor in COPD clients, but assessing for the use of accessory muscles takes priority as it directly reflects the client's respiratory status in COPD.

5. A client is being educated about the use of spironolactone. Which of the following should be included in the teaching?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Avoid potassium-rich foods. Spironolactone can lead to hyperkalemia, a condition characterized by high levels of potassium in the blood. To prevent this complication, clients taking spironolactone should avoid potassium-rich foods. Choice B is incorrect because spironolactone can be taken with or without food. Choice C is not directly related to spironolactone use, as toxicity monitoring is not a specific concern with this medication. Choice D is incorrect because discontinuing the medication solely based on elevated potassium levels may not be necessary; instead, dosage adjustments or potassium restriction are often more appropriate.

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