a client has been prescribed amlodipine for hypertension which of the following adverse effects should the nurse instruct the client to report
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PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 A with NGN

1. A client has been prescribed amlodipine for hypertension. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse instruct the client to report?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Dizziness.' Amlodipine, a calcium channel blocker used for hypertension, can cause dizziness due to its blood pressure-lowering effects. It is crucial for clients to report dizziness to their healthcare provider as it may indicate hypotension. Dry cough (choice A) is more commonly associated with ACE inhibitors, rash (choice C) may be seen in allergic reactions, and headache (choice D) is a less common side effect of amlodipine.

2. A nurse on a postpartum unit is receiving change-of-shift report for four clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse see first?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse should see the client saturating a perineal pad every hour first. This client may be experiencing postpartum hemorrhage, which is a medical emergency requiring immediate assessment and intervention. The other options describe clients with less urgent needs. The client needing Rho(D) immune globulin can wait, the breast fullness in the client who gave birth 3 days ago can be addressed after managing the postpartum hemorrhage, and an increase in urinary output in a client who gave birth 12 hours ago is not indicative of an immediate emergency like postpartum hemorrhage.

3. A nurse is preparing to administer 1 unit of packed RBCs to a client. Which of the following findings should cause the nurse to delay the transfusion?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A temperature of 38.2°C (100.8°F) suggests the possibility of an underlying infection or fever, which should be evaluated before proceeding with the transfusion to prevent complications. Elevated temperature can indicate an immune response to incompatible blood components, increasing the risk of a transfusion reaction. The other vital signs and lab results provided are within acceptable ranges for administering packed RBCs, making choices A, B, and D less likely to cause a delay in the transfusion.

4. A client is prescribed spironolactone. Which of the following dietary instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to advise the client to avoid potassium supplements. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, meaning it helps the body retain potassium. Adding potassium supplements on top of this medication can lead to hyperkalemia, an elevated level of potassium in the blood, which can be dangerous. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because increasing potassium-rich foods, limiting sodium intake, and increasing protein intake are not specifically related to the dietary considerations when taking spironolactone.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has an indwelling urinary catheter. What should the nurse identify as a catheter occlusion?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Bladder distention. Bladder distention indicates that the bladder is full and there is impaired elimination, which could be caused by catheter occlusion. Pain during urination (choice A) is not typically associated with catheter occlusion but may indicate a urinary tract infection. Cloudy urine (choice C) can be a sign of infection but is not specific to catheter occlusion. Blood in the catheter tube (choice D) may indicate trauma during catheter insertion but is not a typical finding in catheter occlusion.

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