ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 A with NGN
1. A client has been prescribed amlodipine for hypertension. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse instruct the client to report?
- A. Dry cough
- B. Dizziness
- C. Rash
- D. Headache
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Dizziness.' Amlodipine, a calcium channel blocker used for hypertension, can cause dizziness due to its blood pressure-lowering effects. It is crucial for clients to report dizziness to their healthcare provider as it may indicate hypotension. Dry cough (choice A) is more commonly associated with ACE inhibitors, rash (choice C) may be seen in allergic reactions, and headache (choice D) is a less common side effect of amlodipine.
2. A nurse is planning care for a newly admitted adolescent client who has bacterial meningitis. Which of the following instructions is appropriate for the nurse to include in the plan of care?
- A. Initiate droplet precautions
- B. Assist the client to a supine position
- C. Perform Glasgow Coma Scale assessment every 24 hours
- D. Recommend prophylactic acyclovir for the client’s family
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Initiate droplet precautions.' Bacterial meningitis requires droplet precautions to prevent the spread of infection, as the bacteria can be transmitted through respiratory secretions. Choice B is incorrect because assisting the client to a supine position is not specific to the care of a client with bacterial meningitis and may not be appropriate for all clients. Choice C is incorrect because while performing Glasgow Coma Scale assessments is important in managing clients with neurological conditions, it is not directly related to preventing the spread of bacterial meningitis. Choice D is incorrect because recommending prophylactic acyclovir for the client's family is not a standard precautionary measure for preventing the spread of bacterial meningitis.
3. While caring for a newborn under phototherapy lights, what is an appropriate nursing action?
- A. Ensure an eye shield is covering the eyes
- B. Apply lotion to the exposed skin
- C. Offer glucose water between feedings
- D. Discontinue breastfeeding during treatment
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to ensure an eye shield is covering the eyes. This action is essential to protect the newborn's eyes from the bright light used in phototherapy. Applying lotion to the exposed skin (Choice B) is not necessary and may interfere with the treatment. Offering glucose water between feedings (Choice C) is not indicated and may not be appropriate for a newborn undergoing phototherapy. Discontinuing breastfeeding during treatment (Choice D) is not recommended as breastfeeding should be continued unless contraindicated.
4. A nurse is caring for a client with a history of substance abuse. Which of the following interventions should the nurse prioritize?
- A. Monitor for withdrawal symptoms
- B. Encourage social activities
- C. Schedule regular follow-ups
- D. Provide educational materials
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor for withdrawal symptoms. This is a priority because individuals with a history of substance abuse are at risk of experiencing withdrawal symptoms when the substance is no longer used. Monitoring for withdrawal symptoms is crucial to ensure the client's safety and to manage any potential complications related to substance withdrawal. Encouraging social activities, scheduling regular follow-ups, and providing educational materials are also important aspects of care, but they are not as critical as monitoring for withdrawal symptoms in this immediate scenario.
5. A client receiving opiates for pain management was initially sedated but is no longer sedated after three days. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Initiate additional non-pharmacological pain management techniques.
- B. Notify the provider that a dosage adjustment is needed.
- C. No action is needed at this time.
- D. Contact the provider to request an alternate method of pain management.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: No action is needed at this time. Sedation from opiates commonly decreases as the body adjusts to the medication. It is a positive sign that the sedation has resolved, indicating the client is tolerating the current dosage well. Initiating additional non-pharmacological pain management techniques (Choice A) is unnecessary since the current pain management regimen is effective. Notifying the provider for a dosage adjustment (Choice B) is premature and not indicated when the sedation has resolved. Contacting the provider to request an alternate method of pain management (Choice D) is excessive and not warranted in this situation where the client is no longer sedated and the current pain management plan is effective.
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