ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 A with NGN
1. A client has been prescribed amlodipine for hypertension. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse instruct the client to report?
- A. Dry cough
- B. Dizziness
- C. Rash
- D. Headache
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Dizziness.' Amlodipine, a calcium channel blocker used for hypertension, can cause dizziness due to its blood pressure-lowering effects. It is crucial for clients to report dizziness to their healthcare provider as it may indicate hypotension. Dry cough (choice A) is more commonly associated with ACE inhibitors, rash (choice C) may be seen in allergic reactions, and headache (choice D) is a less common side effect of amlodipine.
2. A client is being educated about using an intrauterine device (IUD) for contraception. Which of the following client statements indicate an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I will need to have the IUD replaced each year.
- B. I will need to apply a spermicide prior to intercourse.
- C. I should expect my periods to stop while I have the IUD.
- D. I should check for the string each month after menstruation.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because the client should check for the string each month after menstruation to ensure the IUD is in place. This practice helps in identifying any displacement of the IUD. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. A is incorrect because IUDs have different durations depending on the type, not all require yearly replacement. B is incorrect because IUDs do not require spermicide for effectiveness. C is incorrect because while some individuals may experience changes in their menstrual patterns, it is not guaranteed that periods will stop while using an IUD.
3. A nurse is developing a plan of care for a client who will be placed in halo traction following surgical repair of the cervical spine. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan?
- A. Inspect the pin site every 4 hours
- B. Monitor the client’s skin under the halo vest
- C. Ensure two personnel hold the halo device when repositioning the client
- D. Apply powder frequently to the client’s skin under the vest to decrease itching
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the client’s skin under the halo vest. This is important to assess for signs of skin issues such as excessive sweating, redness, or blistering, which can lead to skin breakdown and infection. Choice A is incorrect because inspecting the pin site every 4 hours is necessary but not the priority in this case. Choice C is incorrect as it is not essential for two personnel to hold the halo device during repositioning. Choice D is incorrect because applying powder frequently can actually increase the risk of skin issues by clogging pores and causing irritation.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who has end-stage osteoporosis and is reporting severe pain. The client’s respiratory rate is 14 per minute. Which of the following medications should the nurse prioritize administering?
- A. Promethazine
- B. Hydromorphone
- C. Ketorolac
- D. Amitriptyline
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Hydromorphone, an opioid, is the most appropriate option for managing severe pain in this context. Opioids provide fast-acting relief for acute pain associated with advanced osteoporosis. Promethazine (Choice A) is an antihistamine and not indicated for pain relief. Ketorolac (Choice C) is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that may increase the risk of bleeding and is not recommended for severe pain management. Amitriptyline (Choice D) is a tricyclic antidepressant that is not the first-line treatment for severe acute pain.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who has deep vein thrombosis (DVT) of the left lower extremity. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Position the client with the affected extremity higher than the heart
- B. Administer acetaminophen for pain
- C. Massage the affected extremity every 4 hours
- D. Withhold heparin IV infusion
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to withhold heparin IV infusion. The nurse should withhold heparin if there are signs of complications, such as bleeding, or if there are contraindications to continuing anticoagulation therapy. Positioning the client with the affected extremity higher than the heart helps reduce swelling and improve blood flow. Administering acetaminophen for pain management can be appropriate, but it is not the priority in this situation. Massaging the affected extremity can dislodge the clot and lead to serious complications, so it should be avoided.
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