a client has been prescribed amlodipine for hypertension which of the following adverse effects should the nurse instruct the client to report
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PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 A with NGN

1. A client has been prescribed amlodipine for hypertension. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse instruct the client to report?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Dizziness.' Amlodipine, a calcium channel blocker used for hypertension, can cause dizziness due to its blood pressure-lowering effects. It is crucial for clients to report dizziness to their healthcare provider as it may indicate hypotension. Dry cough (choice A) is more commonly associated with ACE inhibitors, rash (choice C) may be seen in allergic reactions, and headache (choice D) is a less common side effect of amlodipine.

2. A nurse is preparing to administer a dose of digoxin. Which of the following should the nurse do first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to check the heart rate first before administering digoxin. Digoxin is a medication that directly affects the heart, so it is crucial to ensure that the heart rate is within the appropriate range before giving the dose. If the heart rate is below 60 bpm, administering digoxin could lead to toxicity. Assessing blood pressure (Choice A) is important but not the first priority when preparing to administer digoxin. Monitoring potassium levels (Choice C) is also crucial for patients on digoxin, but it is not the initial step. Reviewing the medication order (Choice D) is necessary but can be done after checking the heart rate.

3. A healthcare professional is assessing a client for signs of dehydration. Which of the following should the healthcare professional look for?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Signs of dehydration include dry mucous membranes and decreased urination, among other symptoms. Bradycardia is not a typical sign of dehydration; instead, tachycardia (increased heart rate) is more commonly associated with dehydration. Therefore, option A is incorrect. While dry mucous membranes and decreased urination are indicative of dehydration, selecting only one of these symptoms would not provide a comprehensive assessment. Hence, option D, which includes both dry mucous membranes and decreased urination, is the correct choice.

4. A client is receiving IV moderate sedation with midazolam and has a respiratory rate of 9/min. What should the nurse do?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Administer flumazenil. Flumazenil is the reversal agent for midazolam, a benzodiazepine, and should be administered to counteract respiratory depression. Placing the client in a prone position (choice A) could further compromise their breathing. Implementing positive pressure ventilation (choice B) is not indicated as the first step when dealing with respiratory depression due to sedation. Performing nasopharyngeal suctioning (choice C) is not appropriate in this situation where the client is experiencing respiratory depression due to medication sedation.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has schizophrenia. Which of the following assessment findings should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In clients with schizophrenia, poor problem-solving ability is a common assessment finding due to impaired cognitive function associated with the disorder. This impairment can manifest as difficulties in decision-making and problem-solving. Choice A, decreased level of consciousness, is not a typical finding in schizophrenia. Choice B, inability to identify common objects, is more indicative of conditions like dementia rather than schizophrenia. Choice D, preoccupation with somatic disturbances, is more characteristic of somatic symptom disorder rather than schizophrenia.

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