a client has been prescribed amlodipine for hypertension which of the following adverse effects should the nurse instruct the client to report
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PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 A with NGN

1. A client has been prescribed amlodipine for hypertension. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse instruct the client to report?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Dizziness.' Amlodipine, a calcium channel blocker used for hypertension, can cause dizziness due to its blood pressure-lowering effects. It is crucial for clients to report dizziness to their healthcare provider as it may indicate hypotension. Dry cough (choice A) is more commonly associated with ACE inhibitors, rash (choice C) may be seen in allergic reactions, and headache (choice D) is a less common side effect of amlodipine.

2. A nurse is preparing to teach a client with chronic renal failure. Which dietary instruction is most appropriate?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to restrict protein intake for a client with chronic renal failure. In renal failure, the kidneys are unable to effectively filter waste products. Excessive protein intake can lead to the accumulation of waste products, increasing the workload on the kidneys. Therefore, restricting protein intake is essential to prevent further kidney damage. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Increasing calcium intake is not specifically indicated for chronic renal failure. Increasing potassium intake can be dangerous in renal failure as impaired kidneys may not be able to excrete excess potassium. Increasing protein intake is contraindicated in chronic renal failure as it can worsen kidney function and increase the accumulation of waste products.

3. A patient scheduled for cataract surgery tells the nurse, 'I see just fine and have decided to cancel my surgery.' Which response should the nurse make?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Encouraging the patient to express their thoughts is the best response in this situation. It allows the patient to voice their concerns or reasons for canceling the surgery, which can help the healthcare team address any misunderstandings or fears the patient may have. Choices A and D are too directive and do not consider the patient's autonomy and right to make informed decisions about their care. Choice C is inappropriate as it disregards the patient's expressed decision and fails to address the underlying issue.

4. A nurse is assessing a client who has Parkinson's disease. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bradykinesia. Bradykinesia, which refers to slowness of movement, is a characteristic symptom of Parkinson's disease. Other common manifestations in Parkinson's disease include tremors, muscle rigidity, orthostatic hypotension, and drooling. Pruritus (choice A) is unrelated to Parkinson's disease. While hypertension (choice B) can coexist with Parkinson's disease due to autonomic dysfunction, it is not a specific hallmark manifestation. Xerostomia (choice D) is not a primary symptom associated with Parkinson's disease.

5. A nurse in a provider's office is assessing the motor skill development of a 15-month-old toddler during a well-child visit. What gross motor skills should the nurse expect to observe?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. At 15 months, toddlers typically walk independently but may do so with a wide stance for balance. Choice B, climbing stairs with assistance, is more common around 18 months. Choice C, running smoothly, is usually achieved around 2 years of age. Choice D, kicking a ball forward, generally develops around 2 to 3 years of age. Therefore, for a 15-month-old toddler, the nurse should expect the child to walk without assistance using a wide stance for balance.

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