ATI LPN
LPN Pharmacology Practice Test
1. A healthcare provider is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following statements should the provider include?
- A. Expect muscle pain.
- B. Monitor your weight daily.
- C. Avoid consuming grapefruit juice.
- D. Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When a client is prescribed furosemide, an important consideration is preventing hypokalemia, a potential side effect of the medication. Furosemide can lead to potassium depletion, so increasing the intake of potassium-rich foods is crucial to maintain adequate potassium levels in the body. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because muscle pain is not a common side effect of furosemide, monitoring weight daily may not be directly related to the medication, and avoiding grapefruit juice is more relevant for certain medications that interact with grapefruit juice, not furosemide.
2. What is the key management strategy for diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)?
- A. Administer insulin
- B. Monitor blood glucose
- C. Administer IV fluids
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The key management strategy for diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) involves a comprehensive approach that includes administering insulin to lower blood glucose levels, monitoring blood glucose levels to ensure they are within the target range, and administering IV fluids to correct dehydration and electrolyte imbalances. Choosing 'All of the above' as the correct answer is the most appropriate because all three interventions are essential components of DKA management. Administering insulin alone without addressing fluid status and monitoring blood glucose could lead to complications. Similarly, solely focusing on IV fluids or blood glucose monitoring without insulin administration would not effectively manage DKA.
3. The healthcare provider in the outpatient clinic has obtained health histories for these new patients. Which patient may need referral for genetic testing?
- A. 35-year-old patient whose maternal grandparents died after strokes at ages 90 and 96
- B. 18-year-old patient with a positive pregnancy test whose first child has cerebral palsy
- C. 34-year-old patient who has a sibling with newly diagnosed polycystic kidney disease
- D. 50-year-old patient with a history of cigarette smoking who is complaining of dyspnea
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The 34-year-old patient who has a sibling with newly diagnosed polycystic kidney disease may need referral for genetic testing. Polycystic kidney disease is an autosomal dominant disorder that can be asymptomatic until later in life. Presymptomatic testing can provide valuable information for guiding lifestyle and family planning decisions. The other patients do not present indications for genetic testing based on the information provided in their health histories. The 35-year-old patient's maternal grandparents' strokes are not indicative of a need for genetic testing. The 18-year-old patient's child having cerebral palsy is not a direct indication for genetic testing of the patient herself. The 50-year-old patient's symptoms are more likely related to smoking and respiratory issues, not genetic predisposition to a specific disease.
4. A nurse is preparing to administer a dose of escitalopram. Which of the following should the nurse assess first?
- A. Mood changes
- B. Blood pressure
- C. Heart rate
- D. Liver function
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to assess for mood changes. When administering escitalopram, it is crucial to evaluate mood changes first because the medication may take some time to demonstrate its full effects on the patient's mood. Assessing blood pressure, heart rate, or liver function is not the priority when administering escitalopram, as these parameters are not directly impacted acutely by this medication.
5. What instructions should the nurse give to a patient with cervical cancer who is planned to receive external-beam radiation to prevent complications from the effects of the radiation?
- A. Test stools for the presence of blood.
- B. Maintain a low-residue, high-fiber diet.
- C. Clean the perianal area carefully after every bowel movement.
- D. Inspect the mouth and throat daily for signs of thrush.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When a patient with cervical cancer is receiving external-beam radiation, the radiation to the abdomen can affect organs in its path, such as the bowel, leading to complications like frequent diarrhea. Cleaning the perianal area carefully after each bowel movement is crucial to decrease the risk of skin breakdown and infection. Testing stools for blood is not necessary since inflammation associated with radiation may lead to occult blood in stools. Maintaining a low-residue diet is actually recommended to prevent bowel irritation. Radiation to the abdomen does not cause stomatitis, so inspecting the mouth and throat for thrush is not directly related to the effects of external-beam radiation in this context.
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