Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following statements should the provider include?

• A. Expect muscle pain.
• B. Monitor your weight daily.
• C. Avoid consuming grapefruit juice.
• D. Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a client is prescribed furosemide, an important consideration is preventing hypokalemia, a potential side effect of the medication. Furosemide can lead to potassium depletion, so increasing the intake of potassium-rich foods is crucial to maintain adequate potassium levels in the body. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because muscle pain is not a common side effect of furosemide, monitoring weight daily may not be directly related to the medication, and avoiding grapefruit juice is more relevant for certain medications that interact with grapefruit juice, not furosemide.

2. A client with heart failure is being discharged with a prescription for digoxin (Lanoxin). The nurse should include which instruction in the discharge teaching?

• A. Take your pulse before each dose and hold the medication if your pulse is below 60 beats per minute
• B. Increase your fluid intake to at least 3 liters per day
• C. Report any weight loss of more than 2 pounds in a week
• D. Take the medication with meals to avoid gastrointestinal upset

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client taking digoxin is to monitor the pulse before each dose and hold the medication if the pulse is below 60 beats per minute. Digoxin can cause bradycardia, so it is crucial to assess the pulse rate before administration to prevent potential complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because increasing fluid intake, reporting weight loss, or taking the medication with meals are not specific instructions related to the safe use of digoxin.

3. The client with a new prescription for warfarin (Coumadin) is receiving teaching from the LPN/LVN. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the medication?

• A. I will avoid eating foods high in vitamin K, like spinach and broccoli.
• B. I will take aspirin instead of acetaminophen for headaches while on this medication.
• C. I can stop taking the medication once my symptoms improve.
• D. I will double my dose if I miss a dose to catch up.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Clients prescribed with warfarin (Coumadin) need to maintain a consistent intake of vitamin K and avoid sudden increases in foods rich in vitamin K as it can interfere with the effectiveness of the medication. Choice A, 'I will avoid eating foods high in vitamin K, like spinach and broccoli,' is the correct statement indicating an understanding of the medication. This choice demonstrates knowledge of the importance of consistent vitamin K intake to prevent fluctuations in warfarin's effectiveness. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Choice B suggests a substitution that is not advised without consulting a healthcare provider. Choice C is incorrect as stopping warfarin suddenly can lead to serious health risks. Choice D is unsafe and incorrect since doubling the dose is not the correct action if a dose is missed.

4. A client diagnosed with thrombophlebitis 1 day ago suddenly complains of chest pain and shortness of breath. The LPN/LVN understands that a life-threatening complication of this condition is which?

• A. Pneumonia
• B. Pulmonary edema
• C. Pulmonary embolism
• D. Myocardial infarction

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Pulmonary embolism. Pulmonary embolism is a critical complication of thrombophlebitis where a blood clot dislodges and travels to the lungs, obstructing blood flow. This obstruction can lead to chest pain, shortness of breath, and potentially fatal consequences, making it a life-threatening emergency that requires prompt intervention. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because pneumonia, pulmonary edema, and myocardial infarction are not directly associated with thrombophlebitis and would not present with the sudden onset of chest pain and shortness of breath in this context.

5. A client is receiving heparin therapy. Which of the following laboratory tests should be monitored to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT)
• B. International normalized ratio (INR)
• C. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• D. Complete blood count (CBC)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is the most appropriate laboratory test to monitor the effectiveness of heparin therapy. Heparin works on the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade, and monitoring aPTT helps assess its anticoagulant effect. Therapeutic levels of aPTT for clients on heparin therapy are typically 1.5 to 2.5 times the control value. Prothrombin time (PT) and International normalized ratio (INR) are used to monitor warfarin therapy, which acts on the extrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade. Complete blood count (CBC) is not specific for monitoring the effectiveness of heparin therapy.

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