ATI LPN
ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Quizlet
1. A client receiving chemotherapy is experiencing fatigue. Which intervention should the nurse implement to manage the client's fatigue?
- A. Encourage the client to take short naps during the day
- B. Instruct the client to remain on bedrest
- C. Provide the client with a high-calorie diet
- D. Encourage the client to increase activity levels
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct intervention to manage fatigue in a client receiving chemotherapy is to encourage the client to take short naps during the day. Fatigue is a common side effect of chemotherapy, and allowing the client to rest can help combat this symptom. Instructing the client to remain on bedrest (Choice B) is not recommended as it may lead to deconditioning and worsen fatigue. Providing a high-calorie diet (Choice C) may be beneficial for overall nutrition but does not directly address fatigue. Encouraging the client to increase activity levels (Choice D) may exacerbate fatigue instead of alleviating it.
2. A nurse is preparing to administer metoclopramide 10 mg IM. Available is metoclopramide 5 mg/mL. How many mL should the nurse administer?
- A. 1 mL
- B. 2 mL
- C. 3 mL
- D. 4 mL
Correct answer: B
Rationale: To administer 10 mg of metoclopramide, the nurse should administer 2 mL (10 mg / 5 mg per mL). Therefore, the correct answer is 2 mL. Choice A (1 mL) is incorrect because it would only deliver 5 mg of metoclopramide, which is half the required dose. Choice C (3 mL) and D (4 mL) are incorrect as they would provide more than the required dose of 10 mg.
3. A nurse is preparing a change-of-shift report for an adult female client who is postoperative. Which of the following client information should the nurse include in the report?
- A. Hgb 12.8 g/dl.
- B. Potassium 4.2 mEq/L.
- C. RBC 4.4 million/mm3.
- D. Platelets 100,000/mm3.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: "Platelets 100,000/mm3." A platelet count of 100,000/mm3 is low and increases the client's risk for bleeding, which is crucial information to communicate during the change-of-shift report. Choices A, B, and C provide values within normal ranges and are not directly related to the client's postoperative status or risk for complications. Therefore, they are not the priority information to include in the report.
4. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer a blood transfusion. What is the first step?
- A. Administer the blood through an IV push
- B. Verify that the client's blood type matches the blood product
- C. Ensure the client has eaten before the transfusion
- D. Administer a diuretic before starting the transfusion
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct first step before administering a blood transfusion is to verify that the client's blood type matches the blood product. This step is crucial to prevent transfusion reactions due to incompatibility. Choice A is incorrect because blood should not be administered through an IV push for a blood transfusion. Choice C is incorrect because it is not necessary for the client to eat before a blood transfusion. Choice D is incorrect because administering a diuretic is not a standard practice before starting a blood transfusion.
5. When assessing a client with signs of delirium, which factor should be the nurse's priority in determining the cause?
- A. Medication history
- B. Fluid and electrolyte imbalances
- C. Psychosocial stressors
- D. Environmental factors
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a nurse assesses a client with signs of delirium, the priority in determining the cause should be focusing on fluid and electrolyte imbalances. Delirium can often be linked to imbalances in these essential elements, making it crucial to address them promptly. While medication history, psychosocial stressors, and environmental factors can also contribute to delirium, they should be assessed after addressing fluid and electrolyte imbalances due to their immediate impact on cognitive function.
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