you are assessing a 5 year old boy with major trauma his blood pressure is 7040 mm hg and his pulse rate is 140 beatsmin and weak the childs blood pre
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ATI Pediatrics Proctored Test

1. When assessing a 5-year-old boy with major trauma, his blood pressure is 70/40 mm Hg, and his pulse rate is 140 beats/min and weak. The child's blood pressure:

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a 5-year-old boy with major trauma, a blood pressure of 70/40 mm Hg and a pulse rate of 140 beats/min, and weak, indicate decompensated shock. This presentation signifies inadequate perfusion, leading to compensatory mechanisms being overwhelmed, resulting in decompensated shock. Choice B is incorrect as the vital signs suggest the body is unable to adequately compensate for the trauma. Choice C is incorrect as the vital signs are more indicative of shock rather than increased intracranial pressure. Choice D is incorrect as such low blood pressure is not appropriate for a child of this age and indicates a critical condition.

2. The healthcare provider assesses a postpartum client who is 1 day post-delivery. Which finding would require immediate intervention?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A saturated perineal pad in 15 minutes indicates excessive bleeding, which is abnormal postpartum. This finding could suggest hemorrhage, requiring immediate intervention to prevent further complications like hypovolemic shock. Monitoring and managing postpartum bleeding are crucial to ensure the client's safety and prevent serious consequences.

3. Which of the following is MOST likely to occur in conjunction with a breech presentation?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a breech presentation, where the baby's buttocks or feet present first, there is an increased risk of the umbilical cord slipping down alongside or below the presenting part, leading to a prolapsed umbilical cord. This is a serious complication that can compromise fetal blood flow and oxygenation, necessitating prompt intervention to prevent adverse outcomes. Choices A, B, and D are less likely to occur in conjunction with a breech presentation. Vertex presentation is the normal head-first presentation, maternal hypertension is a separate condition that may not be directly related to fetal presentation, and premature rupture of the amniotic sac can happen independently of the baby's presentation.

4. Which of the following techniques represents the MOST appropriate method of opening the airway of an infant with no suspected neck injury?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Tilting the head back without hyperextending the neck is the safest way to open an infant's airway. Hyperextending the neck can potentially cause harm to the infant, making option D the most appropriate method for opening an infant's airway without suspected neck injury.

5. Which of the following statements regarding 2-rescuer child CPR is correct?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During 2-rescuer child CPR, it is important to compress the chest with one or two hands to a depth equal to one-third the diameter of the chest. This technique ensures effective chest compressions are being delivered to help circulate blood and oxygenate the child's body. Choice A is incorrect because both hands should be used for chest compressions in 2-rescuer CPR. Choice B is incorrect as allowing the chest to fully recoil between compressions is essential to create negative pressure and facilitate blood flow back to the heart. Choice C is incorrect as the standard compression-to-ventilation ratio for child CPR is 30:2, regardless of whether an advanced airway is in place.

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