Nursing Elites

1. What is a priority discharge instruction for a parent of a child experiencing the first episode of asthma?

• A. Asthma can be prevented by avoiding environmental and emotional triggers
• B. Asthma decreases the size of the airway causing distress
• C. Bronchodilators can cause tachycardia and restlessness
• D. If an attack occurs at home, the child should sit or stand

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Educating parents about avoiding triggers is a crucial part of managing asthma in children to prevent future asthma attacks. By identifying and minimizing exposure to triggers, parents can help reduce the risk of asthma exacerbations and improve the child's overall quality of life.

2. What should be the drop rate per minute using a drop factor of 20 drops/ml?

• A. 19 drops/min
• B. 23 drops/min
• C. 36 drops/min
• D. 46.7 drops/min

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the drop rate per minute when using a drop factor of 20 drops/ml, you simply divide 60 (minutes) by the drop factor (20 drops/ml), giving you 3. Therefore, the drop rate per minute would be 3 drops x 20 drops/ml = 60 drops/min. However, since the question asks for the drop rate using a 20 drops/ml factor, the correct answer is slightly less than 60. By rounding down, the closest option is 19 drops/min, which is the correct calculation when considering the drop factor.

3. An 18-month-old child presents with fever, nasal flaring, intercostal retractions, and a respiratory rate of 50 bpm. What is the most appropriate nursing diagnosis?

• A. High risk for altered body temperature (hyperthermia)
• B. Ineffective breathing pattern
• C. Ineffective individual coping
• D. Knowledge deficit

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most appropriate nursing diagnosis for the 18-month-old child presenting with fever, nasal flaring, intercostal retractions, and a respiratory rate of 50 bpm is 'Ineffective breathing pattern.' These symptoms collectively indicate respiratory distress, which aligns with the nursing diagnosis of ineffective breathing pattern. Nasal flaring, intercostal retractions, and an increased respiratory rate are signs of respiratory distress in pediatric patients, suggesting the need for immediate intervention to address the underlying breathing difficulties.

4. Following the initial steps of resuscitation, a newborn remains apneic and cyanotic. What should you do next?

• A. begin ventilations with a bag-mask device.
• B. gently flick the soles of their feet for up to 60 seconds.
• C. immediately suction their mouth and nose.
• D. start CPR if the heart rate is less than 80 beats/min.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: If a newborn remains apneic and cyanotic after the initial resuscitation steps, the next appropriate action is to begin ventilations with a bag-mask device. This helps provide oxygen to the newborn and can be crucial in supporting their respiratory efforts. Option B of flicking the soles of their feet is not recommended in this scenario as the priority is addressing the respiratory distress. Option C of suctioning their mouth and nose is not the immediate next step if the newborn is not spontaneously breathing. Option D of starting CPR based only on the heart rate is not the first-line intervention for an apneic and cyanotic newborn.

5. When is it MOST appropriate to clamp and cut the umbilical cord?

• A. Before the newborn has taken its first breath
• B. After the placenta has completely delivered
• C. As soon as the cord has stopped pulsating
• D. Immediately following delivery of the newborn

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The ideal time to clamp and cut the umbilical cord is when it has stopped pulsating. This allows for the transfer of remaining blood from the placenta to the newborn, which can be beneficial for the baby's health and iron stores. Clamping the cord too early can deprive the newborn of this essential blood volume. Waiting for the pulsations to cease ensures that the baby receives the maximum benefits from delayed cord clamping.

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