ATI LPN
PN ATI Comprehensive Predictor
1. Which of the following is a realistic short-term goal to be accomplished in 2 to 3 days for a client with delirium?
- A. Explain the experience of having delirium
- B. Resume a normal sleep-wake cycle
- C. Regain orientation to time and place
- D. Establish normal bowel and bladder function
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Regaining orientation to time and place is a realistic short-term goal for clients with delirium. It helps the individual become aware of their surroundings and current situation, aiding in reducing confusion and disorientation. Choice A is incorrect because the goal is focused on the client's understanding, not on explaining the experience of delirium. Choice B, resuming a normal sleep-wake cycle, may take longer than 2 to 3 days to achieve and is not directly related to regaining orientation. Choice D, establishing normal bowel and bladder function, is important but may not be a short-term goal specifically related to delirium.
2. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is receiving warfarin for atrial fibrillation. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. International normalized ratio (INR) of 2.5
- B. Platelet count of 180,000/mm³
- C. Prothrombin time (PT) of 12 seconds
- D. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) of 30 seconds
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A prothrombin time (PT) of 12 seconds is below the therapeutic range for warfarin and indicates a need for dosage adjustment. The correct answer is C. A normal International normalized ratio (INR) for a client on warfarin therapy is usually between 2.0 to 3.0; therefore, an INR of 2.5 is within the expected range. A platelet count of 180,000/mm³ is within the normal range (150,000 to 450,000/mm³) and does not require immediate reporting. A partial thromboplastin time (PTT) of 30 seconds is also within the normal range (25-35 seconds) and does not indicate a need for urgent action.
3. What is the priority for a client with dehydration?
- A. Administer antiemetics to prevent nausea
- B. Monitor electrolyte levels to prevent imbalances
- C. Administer oral rehydration solutions
- D. Administer intravenous fluids
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The priority for a client with dehydration is to monitor electrolyte levels to prevent imbalances. Dehydration can lead to electrolyte disturbances, which can have serious consequences. Administering antiemetics (Choice A) may help with nausea but does not address the root cause of dehydration. Administering oral rehydration solutions (Choice C) can be beneficial, but monitoring electrolyte levels is crucial in managing dehydration. Administering intravenous fluids (Choice D) is important in severe cases of dehydration, but monitoring electrolytes should come first to assess the extent of the imbalance and guide fluid replacement therapy effectively.
4. A healthcare provider is reviewing the medical record of a client who has hypertension. Which of the following findings should the provider identify as a risk factor for this condition?
- A. Age 25 years
- B. Family history of hypotension
- C. Obesity
- D. History of hypotension
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Obesity. Obesity is a significant risk factor for hypertension due to its impact on the cardiovascular system. Obesity can lead to increased blood pressure due to the additional workload placed on the heart and blood vessels. Age alone does not necessarily predispose someone to hypertension, and a family history of hypotension or a personal history of hypotension would not increase the risk of developing hypertension. Family history of hypotension is not a known risk factor for hypertension, and a history of hypotension actually indicates low blood pressure, which is the opposite of hypertension.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who is being discharged home following a cerebrovascular accident. Which of the following documents should the nurse plan to include with the discharge report?
- A. List of prescribed medications
- B. Potential complications to report
- C. Family contact details
- D. Dietary restrictions
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Potential complications to report. Including potential complications in the discharge report is crucial for ensuring proper follow-up care. This information helps the client and their caregivers to be aware of warning signs that may indicate a worsening condition or the need for immediate medical attention. Choices A, C, and D are important aspects of discharge planning, but providing a list of potential complications to report takes precedence as it directly impacts the client's safety and well-being post-discharge.
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