Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following interventions is most appropriate for a client with left-leg weakness who is learning to use a cane?

• A. Maintain two points of support on the floor at all times
• B. Use the cane on the weak side of the body
• C. Advance the cane and the strong leg simultaneously
• D. Advance the cane 30 to 45 cm (12-18 in) with each step

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most appropriate intervention for a client with left-leg weakness learning to use a cane is to maintain two points of support on the floor at all times. This ensures stability and helps distribute weight evenly between the legs, reducing the risk of falls. Using the cane on the weak side of the body (Choice B) may not provide adequate support. Advancing the cane and the strong leg simultaneously (Choice C) can lead to imbalance and increases the risk of falls. Advancing the cane too far with each step (Choice D) can also compromise balance and stability.

2. A client is receiving phenytoin for management of grand mal seizures and has a new prescription for isoniazid and rifampin. Which of the following should the nurse conclude if the client develops ataxia and incoordination?

• A. The client is experiencing an adverse reaction to rifampin.
• B. The client's seizure disorder is no longer under control.
• C. The client is showing evidence of phenytoin toxicity.
• D. The client is having adverse effects due to combination antimicrobial therapy.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Ataxia and incoordination are signs of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse reactions to rifampin or isoniazid. These symptoms indicate that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of phenytoin, requiring a dose adjustment. Choice A is incorrect because rifampin is not typically associated with ataxia and incoordination. Choice B is incorrect as the development of ataxia and incoordination does not necessarily mean the seizure disorder is no longer under control. Choice D is incorrect as the symptoms are more indicative of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse effects of combination antimicrobial therapy.

3. What is the best nursing intervention for a patient with hyperkalemia?

• A. Administer potassium-wasting diuretics
• B. Encourage a low-potassium diet
• C. Administer potassium supplements
• D. Administer IV fluids

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer potassium-wasting diuretics. Hyperkalemia, which is high potassium levels, is managed by promoting the excretion of potassium from the body. Potassium-wasting diuretics help the kidneys eliminate excess potassium. Encouraging a low-potassium diet (choice B) is important for long-term management but not the immediate intervention for hyperkalemia. Administering potassium supplements (choice C) would worsen the condition by further increasing potassium levels. Administering IV fluids (choice D) may help with hydration but does not directly address the high potassium levels characteristic of hyperkalemia.

4. What are the key interventions for managing pneumonia?

• A. Administer antibiotics and monitor oxygen levels
• B. Administer bronchodilators and encourage deep breathing
• C. Provide fluids and monitor for dehydration
• D. Administer oxygen and provide bed rest

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer antibiotics and monitor oxygen levels. Antibiotics are essential to treat the infection caused by bacteria in pneumonia, while monitoring oxygen levels helps ensure adequate oxygenation. Administering bronchodilators and encouraging deep breathing, as in choice B, are more commonly associated with managing conditions like asthma or COPD, not pneumonia. Providing fluids and monitoring for dehydration, as in choice C, are important for various conditions but not specific to pneumonia management. Administering oxygen and providing bed rest, as in choice D, may be supportive measures in pneumonia treatment, but the key intervention is administering antibiotics.

5. A client has developed phlebitis at the IV site. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Apply a warm compress to the IV site
• B. Discontinue the IV and notify the provider
• C. Monitor the IV site for signs of infection
• D. Administer an anti-inflammatory medication

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client develops phlebitis at the IV site, the priority action for the nurse is to discontinue the IV and notify the provider. Phlebitis is inflammation of the vein, and removing the IV can help prevent further complications. Applying a warm compress may provide symptomatic relief but does not address the root cause. Monitoring for infection is important, but immediate action to remove the source of inflammation is crucial. Administering an anti-inflammatory medication is not the first-line intervention for phlebitis; removal of the IV is necessary.

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