what are the risk factors for pressure ulcer development
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2024

1. What are the risk factors for pressure ulcer development?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: The correct answer is immobility and poor nutrition. Immobility can lead to constant pressure on certain areas of the body, while poor nutrition can impair tissue repair and regeneration, both contributing to the development of pressure ulcers. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while obesity, diabetes, dehydration, malnutrition, use of assistive devices, and prolonged bedrest can impact skin integrity and wound healing, they are not the primary risk factors specifically associated with pressure ulcer development.

2. A nurse is assisting with performing a nonstress test for a client who is at 39 weeks of gestation. Which of the following instructions should the nurse reinforce with the client?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because the client should press the button when feeling fetal movement to track the baby's activity. Choice A is incorrect because the client should press the button during movements. Choice C is incorrect as the button should be pressed during fetal movements, not contractions. Choice D is irrelevant to the instructions for the nonstress test.

3. How should a healthcare provider assess and manage a patient with a potential myocardial infarction (MI)?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct Answer: A. When assessing a patient with a potential myocardial infarction, it is crucial to assess symptoms, monitor vital signs like blood pressure and heart rate, and order an electrocardiogram (ECG) to evaluate for cardiac abnormalities. Choice B is incorrect because administering medications should be based on the findings of the assessment and diagnostic tests, not administered indiscriminately. Choice C is incorrect because the administration of thrombolytics and oxygen therapy should be based on specific criteria and should be done in a controlled setting. Choice D is incorrect as educating the patient on lifestyle changes is important for prevention but is not the immediate priority when managing a potential myocardial infarction.

4. How should a healthcare provider manage a patient with pneumonia?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct answer: Administering antibiotics and providing oxygen therapy are essential in managing pneumonia. Antibiotics help treat the infection caused by bacteria, while oxygen therapy improves lung function. Choice B is incorrect because bronchodilators may not be the primary treatment for pneumonia. Choice C is not the priority in pneumonia management, although fluids and rest are important for recovery. Choice D is also not a primary intervention in pneumonia management.

5. A nurse in a long-term care facility is auscultating the lung sounds of a client who reports shortness of breath and increased fatigue. The nurse should report which of the following to the provider after hearing this sound?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Fine crackles. Fine crackles suggest fluid in the lungs, which could indicate a serious respiratory issue like pulmonary edema. This sound should be reported to the provider for further evaluation and possible intervention. Rhonchi (choice B) are low-pitched wheezing sounds often caused by secretions in the larger airways, wheezing (choice C) is a high-pitched whistling sound usually caused by narrowed airways, and stridor (choice D) is a high-pitched sound heard on inspiration that indicates upper airway obstruction. While these sounds also require attention, fine crackles are more indicative of fluid accumulation in the lungs, making them the priority for reporting in this scenario.

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