Nursing Elites

1. What are the risk factors for pressure ulcer development?

• A. Immobility and poor nutrition
• B. Obesity and diabetes
• C. Dehydration and malnutrition
• D. Use of assistive devices and prolonged bedrest

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: The correct answer is immobility and poor nutrition. Immobility can lead to constant pressure on certain areas of the body, while poor nutrition can impair tissue repair and regeneration, both contributing to the development of pressure ulcers. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while obesity, diabetes, dehydration, malnutrition, use of assistive devices, and prolonged bedrest can impact skin integrity and wound healing, they are not the primary risk factors specifically associated with pressure ulcer development.

2. What should a healthcare professional assess in a patient presenting with symptoms of a stroke?

• A. Assess facial drooping
• B. Monitor speech difficulties
• C. Evaluate arm weakness
• D. Check for time of onset of symptoms

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When assessing a patient with suspected stroke symptoms, it is crucial to check for facial drooping as it can be a sign of facial nerve weakness, which is a common indicator of stroke. While monitoring speech difficulties and evaluating arm weakness are also important assessments in stroke cases, they are secondary to facial drooping. Checking for the time of onset of symptoms is essential to determine eligibility for time-sensitive treatments like thrombolytic therapy, but when prioritizing assessments, facial drooping takes precedence.

3. A nurse is planning care for a client who is at 28 weeks of gestation and has preeclampsia. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan?

• A. Restrict the client's fluid intake.
• B. Monitor the client's deep-tendon reflexes.
• C. Place the client in the lithotomy position.
• D. Encourage the client to ambulate frequently.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the client's deep-tendon reflexes. Monitoring deep-tendon reflexes is crucial in clients with preeclampsia as hyperreflexia can indicate severe complications. Restricting the client's fluid intake is not recommended as hydration is essential. Placing the client in the lithotomy position can worsen preeclampsia by reducing blood flow to the heart, so it should be avoided. Encouraging the client to ambulate frequently may not be suitable for a client with preeclampsia due to the risk of falls and increased stress on the body.

4. What is the study of conduct and character?

• A. Ethics
• B. Justice
• C. Morals
• D. Non-maleficence

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Ethics is the correct answer because it specifically deals with the study of conduct and character. Ethics is a branch of philosophy that involves systematizing, defending, and recommending concepts of right and wrong conduct. While justice and morals are related to ethical considerations, they do not directly represent the study of conduct and character. Non-maleficence is a principle in medical ethics related to avoiding harm.

5. A nurse is preparing a change-of-shift report for an adult female client who is postoperative. Which of the following client information should the nurse include in the report?

• A. Hgb 12.8 g/dl.
• B. Potassium 4.2 mEq/L.
• C. RBC 4.4 million/mm3.
• D. Platelets 100,000/mm3.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: "Platelets 100,000/mm3." A platelet count of 100,000/mm3 is low and increases the client's risk for bleeding, which is crucial information to communicate during the change-of-shift report. Choices A, B, and C provide values within normal ranges and are not directly related to the client's postoperative status or risk for complications. Therefore, they are not the priority information to include in the report.

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