Nursing Elites

1. Which medication is commonly used to treat both major depressive disorder and neuropathic pain?

• A. Gabapentin
• B. Duloxetine
• C. Amitriptyline
• D. Tramadol

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Duloxetine, also known as Cymbalta, is a medication commonly used to treat both major depressive disorder and neuropathic pain. It is a serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor (SNRI) that helps alleviate symptoms associated with these conditions. Gabapentin is primarily used for neuropathic pain, Amitriptyline is commonly used as an antidepressant, and Tramadol is an opioid analgesic often used for pain relief but not typically indicated for major depressive disorder.

2. A healthcare professional is planning care for a client who has a mental health disorder. Which of the following actions should the professional include as a psychobiological intervention?

• A. Assist the client with systematic desensitization therapy
• B. Teach the client appropriate coping mechanisms
• C. Assess the client for comorbid health conditions
• D. Monitor the client for adverse effects of medications

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Monitoring the client for adverse effects of medications is considered a psychobiological intervention because it involves the physiological aspect of mental health treatment. It focuses on the biological impact of medications on the client's mental health condition, emphasizing the interplay between biological and psychological factors in managing mental health disorders. Choices A, B, and C are not psychobiological interventions. Choice A, systematic desensitization therapy, is a psychological intervention aimed at reducing anxiety by gradually exposing the client to feared stimuli. Choice B, teaching appropriate coping mechanisms, is a psychosocial intervention focusing on behavioral strategies to manage stress. Choice C, assessing for comorbid health conditions, pertains to identifying other medical issues that may coexist with the mental health disorder but does not directly address the biological effects of medications on mental health.

3. What is the primary goal of exposure therapy for a patient with specific phobia?

• A. To eliminate the phobic response completely
• B. To increase the patient's exposure to the feared object
• C. To help the patient confront and reduce their fear gradually
• D. To provide immediate relief from anxiety symptoms

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The primary goal of exposure therapy for a patient with a specific phobia is to help them confront their fear gradually, leading to a reduction in their fear response over time. This gradual exposure helps the individual learn to manage and cope with their phobia, ultimately reducing the intensity of their fear reactions. Choice A is incorrect because while the goal is to reduce the fear response, complete elimination may not always be feasible. Choice B is incorrect as the focus is not solely on increasing exposure but on gradual confrontation. Choice D is incorrect as the therapy aims for long-term reduction rather than immediate relief.

4. Which patient behavior is consistent with therapeutic communication?

• A. Offering your opinion when asked to provide support.
• B. Summarizing the essence of the patient’s comments in your own words.
• C. Avoiding interrupting periods of silence to allow the patient space to think.
• D. Providing positive reinforcement when the patient expresses themselves.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Summarizing the essence of the patient’s comments in your own words is a key component of therapeutic communication. This behavior demonstrates active listening, ensures understanding of the patient's message, and encourages further discussion. By summarizing, you show the patient that you are engaged and interested, which helps them feel heard and valued. Offering your opinion (choice A) may bias the patient's thoughts and feelings, interrupting periods of silence (choice C) may prevent the patient from processing their thoughts, and providing positive reinforcement (choice D) may not always be appropriate or necessary in therapeutic communication.

5. A patient with a diagnosis of panic disorder is prescribed an SSRI. Which side effect should the nurse monitor for when the patient starts this medication?

• A. Increased heart rate
• B. Increased appetite
• C. Gastrointestinal disturbances
• D. Dry mouth

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a patient with panic disorder is prescribed an SSRI, the nurse should monitor for gastrointestinal disturbances as a common side effect. SSRIs can cause gastrointestinal symptoms such as nausea, diarrhea, or abdominal discomfort, especially at the beginning of treatment. Increased heart rate (Choice A) is not a common side effect of SSRIs; it is more commonly associated with medications like stimulants. Increased appetite (Choice B) is not a typical side effect of SSRIs, as they are more likely to cause weight loss or appetite suppression. Dry mouth (Choice D) is a side effect seen more commonly with medications that have anticholinergic properties, not typically with SSRIs.

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