ATI LPN
ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 with NGN
1. Which intervention is most important for a client with rheumatoid arthritis?
- A. Massage inflamed joints with creams and oils
- B. Provide support to flexed joints with pillows and pads
- C. Position the client on their abdomen several times a day
- D. Assist with heat application and range of motion exercises
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The most important intervention for a client with rheumatoid arthritis is to assist with heat application and range of motion exercises. Heat application helps reduce stiffness and improve joint flexibility, while range of motion exercises help maintain mobility and prevent contractures. Massaging inflamed joints with creams and oils may provide temporary relief but does not address the root cause of stiffness and limited mobility in rheumatoid arthritis. Providing support to flexed joints with pillows and pads can be helpful for comfort but does not actively promote mobility. Positioning the client on their abdomen several times a day is not a standard intervention for managing rheumatoid arthritis.
2. A nurse is reinforcing discharge teaching with a client who is postoperative following an open radical prostatectomy. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Perform Kegel exercises daily
- B. Perform light exercise for 3 hours each day
- C. Avoid bathing for 3 days
- D. Avoid sitting in a chair for more than 2 hours
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Perform Kegel exercises daily. After a radical prostatectomy, Kegel exercises are beneficial as they help strengthen the pelvic floor muscles, aiding in urinary control and recovery. Choice B is incorrect because recommending 3 hours of light exercise daily may not be suitable immediately postoperatively. Choice C is incorrect as personal hygiene, including bathing, is important for postoperative care. Choice D is incorrect because sitting for more than 2 hours does not specifically relate to the client's postoperative care needs.
3. What are the signs and symptoms of a pulmonary embolism?
- A. Sudden shortness of breath
- B. Chest pain
- C. Cough with blood
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A pulmonary embolism can manifest with sudden shortness of breath, chest pain, and coughing up blood. These symptoms are classic presentations of a pulmonary embolism due to the blockage of blood flow to the lungs. Therefore, the correct answer is 'All of the above.' Each symptom alone can be seen in various other conditions, but when occurring together, they strongly suggest a pulmonary embolism. Sudden shortness of breath is due to decreased oxygenation, chest pain can result from the strain on the heart, and coughing with blood may indicate damage to the lung tissue. Choosing any single symptom would not encompass the full range of presentations seen in a pulmonary embolism.
4. The physician orders risperidone (Risperdal) for a client with Alzheimer's disease. The nurse anticipates administering this medication to help decrease which of the following behaviors?
- A. Sleep disturbances
- B. Concomitant depression
- C. Agitation and assaultiveness
- D. Confusion and withdrawal
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Agitation and assaultiveness. Risperidone is commonly prescribed for clients with Alzheimer's disease to reduce symptoms of agitation and aggressive behavior. This medication helps in managing challenging behaviors often seen in individuals with Alzheimer's. Choice A, sleep disturbances, is incorrect as risperidone is not primarily indicated for treating sleep issues in Alzheimer's patients. Choice B, concomitant depression, is also incorrect as risperidone is not the first-line treatment for depression in Alzheimer's disease. Choice D, confusion and withdrawal, is incorrect as risperidone does not directly target these symptoms in Alzheimer's patients.
5. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has received a preoperative dose of morphine. Which of the following findings is the priority to report to the provider?
- A. Client reports nausea.
- B. Urinary output of 20 mL/hr.
- C. Oxygen saturation 90%.
- D. Respiratory rate 14/min.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: An oxygen saturation of 90% is below the expected reference range and could indicate respiratory depression, a serious side effect of morphine. This finding requires immediate attention as it may lead to hypoxia. Nausea (choice A) is a common side effect of morphine but does not pose an immediate threat. A urinary output of 20 mL/hr (choice B) may indicate decreased renal perfusion but is not as critical as respiratory compromise. A respiratory rate of 14/min (choice D) is within the normal range and does not suggest immediate danger.
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