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PN ATI Comprehensive Predictor
1. A healthcare provider is caring for a client with a pressure ulcer and needs to review the client's medical history. Which of the following findings is expected?
- A. A Braden scale score of 20
- B. An albumin level of 3 g/dL
- C. A hemoglobin level of 13 g/dL
- D. A Norton scale score of 18
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A serum albumin level of 3 g/dL is indicative of poor nutrition, a common factor in the development of pressure ulcers. The Braden scale assesses the risk of developing pressure ulcers but does not reflect the client's medical history. Hemoglobin level is more related to oxygen-carrying capacity rather than pressure ulcer development. The Norton scale evaluates risk for developing pressure ulcers but is not typically part of a client's medical history.
2. A nurse is preparing to administer a client's morning medications. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to verify the client's identity?
- A. Ask the client's full name
- B. Scan the client's facility identification band
- C. Call the client's name
- D. Verify with a second nurse
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action to verify a client's identity when administering medications is to scan the client's facility identification band. This method ensures accuracy and helps prevent medication errors. Asking the client's full name (Choice A) may not be reliable as names can be similar, leading to confusion. Calling the client's name (Choice C) may not be effective if there are multiple clients with the same name in the facility. Verifying with a second nurse (Choice D) is an important safety measure for certain tasks but is not specifically for verifying a client's identity.
3. A client who had a vaginal delivery 4 hours ago has a fourth-degree perineal laceration. Which of the following interventions should the nurse recommend?
- A. Encourage ambulation
- B. Apply ice packs
- C. Restrict the client's fluid intake
- D. Administer stool softeners
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Correct Answer: Applying ice packs is the most appropriate intervention for a client with a fourth-degree perineal laceration. Ice packs help reduce swelling and promote comfort, aiding in the healing process. Choice A, encouraging ambulation, may not be suitable immediately after a fourth-degree laceration due to the need for rest and proper wound care. Choice C, restricting fluid intake, is not indicated and can lead to dehydration, which is not beneficial for wound healing. Choice D, administering stool softeners, may be necessary to prevent constipation and straining, but it is not the priority intervention at this time.
4. How should a healthcare professional assess and manage a patient with a tracheostomy?
- A. Monitor for signs of infection and ensure airway patency
- B. Suction airway secretions and provide humidified air
- C. Inspect stoma site and clean with saline
- D. Provide education on tracheostomy care
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Correct answer: Monitoring for signs of infection and ensuring airway patency is crucial in managing a patient with a tracheostomy. This involves observing for redness, swelling, or discharge at the stoma site, as well as assessing for any signs of respiratory distress. Choice B, suctioning airway secretions and providing humidified air, is important for maintaining airway hygiene but may not be the initial assessment priority. Choice C, inspecting the stoma site and cleaning with saline, is part of routine tracheostomy care but does not address immediate assessment and management needs. Choice D, providing education on tracheostomy care, is valuable but not the primary action required in the assessment and management of a patient with a tracheostomy.
5. A client with a peptic ulcer had a partial gastrectomy and vagotomy (Billroth I). In planning the discharge teaching, the client should be cautioned by the nurse about which of the following?
- A. Sit up for at least 30 minutes after eating
- B. Avoid fluids between meals
- C. Increase the intake of high-carbohydrate foods
- D. Avoid eating large meals that are high in simple sugars and liquids
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Avoid eating large meals that are high in simple sugars and liquids.' Clients who have undergone partial gastrectomy are at risk of dumping syndrome, which can occur due to the rapid emptying of stomach contents into the small intestine. Consuming large meals high in simple sugars and liquids can exacerbate this syndrome, leading to symptoms like abdominal cramping and diarrhea. Choices A, B, and C are not directly related to preventing dumping syndrome and are not the priority concerns for a client post-partial gastrectomy.
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