ATI LPN
PN ATI Comprehensive Predictor
1. A healthcare provider is caring for a client with a pressure ulcer and needs to review the client's medical history. Which of the following findings is expected?
- A. A Braden scale score of 20
- B. An albumin level of 3 g/dL
- C. A hemoglobin level of 13 g/dL
- D. A Norton scale score of 18
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A serum albumin level of 3 g/dL is indicative of poor nutrition, a common factor in the development of pressure ulcers. The Braden scale assesses the risk of developing pressure ulcers but does not reflect the client's medical history. Hemoglobin level is more related to oxygen-carrying capacity rather than pressure ulcer development. The Norton scale evaluates risk for developing pressure ulcers but is not typically part of a client's medical history.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who has dementia and frequently gets out of bed unsupervised. What is the best intervention to prevent falls?
- A. Place a bed exit alarm
- B. Use restraints to prevent the client from getting out of bed
- C. Ask the client's family to stay at the bedside
- D. Encourage frequent ambulation with assistance
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The best intervention to prevent falls in a client with dementia who gets out of bed unsupervised is to place a bed exit alarm. This device alerts staff when the client attempts to leave the bed, allowing timely intervention to reduce the risk of falls. Using restraints (choice B) can lead to physical and psychological harm and should be avoided unless absolutely necessary. Asking the client's family to stay at the bedside (choice C) may not be feasible at all times and does not provide a continuous monitoring solution. Encouraging frequent ambulation with assistance (choice D) is beneficial for mobility but may not address the immediate risk of falls associated with unsupervised bed exits.
3. A client is admitted to the emergency department with a suspected myocardial infarction (MI). The nurse should prepare the client for which immediate diagnostic test?
- A. Chest x-ray
- B. Electrocardiogram (ECG)
- C. Echocardiogram
- D. Coronary angiography
Correct answer: B
Rationale: An Electrocardiogram (ECG) is the most immediate and essential test to diagnose a myocardial infarction (MI) and assess the extent of heart damage. An ECG can quickly identify changes in the heart's electrical activity, allowing prompt initiation of appropriate interventions. A chest x-ray (Choice A) may show other conditions affecting the heart, but it is not the immediate test of choice for diagnosing an MI. An echocardiogram (Choice C) and coronary angiography (Choice D) are valuable in further assessing cardiac function and anatomy post-MI but are not the first-line diagnostic tests due to their time-consuming nature compared to an ECG.
4. What is essential for student nurses to perform at their physical and emotional best?
- A. Engaging in adequate exercise.
- B. Eating plenty of carbohydrates the day before.
- C. Drinking caffeinated beverages before clinical.
- D. Studying late into the night to be prepared.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: To perform at their physical and emotional best, it is essential for student nurses to engage in adequate exercise. Regular physical activity not only helps maintain physical health but also contributes to emotional well-being, which is crucial for optimal clinical performance. Exercise can help reduce stress, improve mood, increase energy levels, and enhance overall cognitive function, all of which are essential for students to perform effectively in clinical settings. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Eating plenty of carbohydrates the day before, drinking caffeinated beverages before clinical, and studying late into the night may not necessarily lead to optimal physical and emotional performance. While nutrition is important, a balanced diet is more effective than simply focusing on carbohydrates. Caffeinated beverages can lead to dehydration and interfere with sleep patterns, and studying late into the night can impair cognitive function and increase stress levels, which are counterproductive to performing at one's best.
5. A patient with chronic heart failure is prescribed furosemide. What is the primary action of this medication?
- A. Increase cardiac output
- B. Reduce fluid retention
- C. Decrease heart rate
- D. Lower blood pressure
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that acts by inhibiting sodium and chloride reabsorption in the loop of Henle, leading to increased diuresis. By reducing fluid retention, furosemide helps decrease the workload on the heart in patients with chronic heart failure. This medication does not directly increase cardiac output, decrease heart rate, or lower blood pressure as its primary action.
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