Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is caring for a client with a pressure ulcer and needs to review the client's medical history. Which of the following findings is expected?

• A. A Braden scale score of 20
• B. An albumin level of 3 g/dL
• C. A hemoglobin level of 13 g/dL
• D. A Norton scale score of 18

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A serum albumin level of 3 g/dL is indicative of poor nutrition, a common factor in the development of pressure ulcers. The Braden scale assesses the risk of developing pressure ulcers but does not reflect the client's medical history. Hemoglobin level is more related to oxygen-carrying capacity rather than pressure ulcer development. The Norton scale evaluates risk for developing pressure ulcers but is not typically part of a client's medical history.

2. A nurse in the emergency department is caring for a client who has full-thickness burns of the thorax and upper torso. After securing the client's airway, which of the following is the nurse's priority intervention?

• A. Providing pain management.
• B. Offering emotional support.
• C. Preventing infection.
• D. Initiating IV fluids.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: After securing the airway, initiating IV fluids is the priority to prevent hypovolemic shock in clients with severe burns. IV fluids help maintain circulating volume and prevent a drop in blood pressure due to fluid loss. Providing pain management, offering emotional support, and preventing infection are important aspects of care but are secondary to ensuring adequate fluid resuscitation in clients with severe burns.

3. What are the risk factors for deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and how can it be prevented?

• A. Immobility and oral contraceptive use
• B. Pregnancy and smoking
• C. Obesity and varicose veins
• D. Hypertension and high cholesterol

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Immobility and oral contraceptive use. Immobility and oral contraceptive use are significant risk factors for deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Immobility leads to blood stasis, increasing the risk of clot formation, while oral contraceptive use can promote hypercoagulability. Prevention strategies for DVT include promoting mobility to enhance blood circulation and using anticoagulants to prevent clot formation. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. While pregnancy and smoking can increase the risk of DVT, they are not the specific factors mentioned in the question. Similarly, obesity and varicose veins, as well as hypertension and high cholesterol, are not the primary risk factors associated with DVT.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who has been diagnosed with hyperkalemia. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Muscle weakness
• B. Nausea
• C. Increased thirst
• D. Restlessness

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Muscle weakness is a characteristic finding in hyperkalemia. High levels of potassium can affect the normal function of muscles, leading to weakness. Nausea and increased thirst are not typically associated with hyperkalemia. Restlessness is more commonly seen in conditions such as hypoxia or anxiety, not specifically in hyperkalemia.

5. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has schizophrenia and is taking clozapine. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as a contraindication to the administration of clozapine?

• A. WBC count 2,900 /mm3.
• B. Fasting blood glucose 100 mg/dl.
• C. Hgb 14 g/dl.
• D. Heart rate 58/min.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A WBC count of 2,900/mm3 indicates leukopenia, which is a serious side effect of clozapine and contraindicates its use. Leukopenia is a significant concern with clozapine therapy due to the risk of agranulocytosis, a potentially life-threatening condition. Monitoring the WBC count is crucial to detect this adverse effect early. The other options (B, C, and D) are within normal ranges and not contraindications for administering clozapine.

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