a nurse is caring for a client with a pressure ulcer and needs to review the clients medical history which of the following findings is expected
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1. A healthcare provider is caring for a client with a pressure ulcer and needs to review the client's medical history. Which of the following findings is expected?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A serum albumin level of 3 g/dL is indicative of poor nutrition, a common factor in the development of pressure ulcers. The Braden scale assesses the risk of developing pressure ulcers but does not reflect the client's medical history. Hemoglobin level is more related to oxygen-carrying capacity rather than pressure ulcer development. The Norton scale evaluates risk for developing pressure ulcers but is not typically part of a client's medical history.

2. A client with type 2 diabetes mellitus is being taught about insulin administration by a nurse. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction that the nurse should include is to rotate injection sites with each dose. This practice is essential to prevent tissue damage and ensure proper insulin absorption. Option A is incorrect because insulin should not be injected into the muscle, but rather into the subcutaneous tissue. Option C is incorrect as insulin should be stored in the refrigerator to maintain its effectiveness. Option D is incorrect as massaging the injection site after administration can lead to faster absorption and potentially hypoglycemia.

3. What are the nursing interventions for a patient with hypokalemia?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct intervention for a patient with hypokalemia is to administer potassium supplements and monitor the ECG. Potassium supplements help correct the low potassium levels in the body, while ECG monitoring is essential to detect any cardiac arrhythmias associated with hypokalemia. Choice B is incorrect because a high-sodium diet would worsen hypokalemia by further depleting potassium levels. Choice C is incorrect as it only focuses on monitoring symptoms and providing dietary education, but does not address the immediate need to correct potassium levels. Choice D is also incorrect as administering diuretics would exacerbate hypokalemia by increasing potassium loss.

4. What is the priority intervention when managing a client with delirium?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to identify any reversible causes of delirium. Delirium is often caused by underlying issues such as infections, medication side effects, or metabolic imbalances. Addressing these root causes can help resolve delirium more effectively. Administering antipsychotic or sedative medications should not be the initial approach as they can worsen delirium in some cases. Providing a low-stimulation environment is beneficial but not the priority when reversible causes need to be addressed first.

5. What is the best strategy for managing fatigue in a client who has had an acute myocardial infarction and is concerned about self-care?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The best strategy for managing fatigue in a client who has had an acute myocardial infarction and is concerned about self-care is to encourage the client to gradually resume self-care tasks with frequent rest periods. This approach helps the client regain independence while managing fatigue effectively. Choice A is incorrect because complete rest without any self-care tasks may hinder recovery and independence. Choice C is not the best option as it does not promote the client's independence. Choice D, while involving family support, does not empower the client to regain self-care abilities.

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