Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is caring for a client with a pressure ulcer and needs to review the client's medical history. Which of the following findings is expected?

• A. A Braden scale score of 20
• B. An albumin level of 3 g/dL
• C. A hemoglobin level of 13 g/dL
• D. A Norton scale score of 18

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A serum albumin level of 3 g/dL is indicative of poor nutrition, a common factor in the development of pressure ulcers. The Braden scale assesses the risk of developing pressure ulcers but does not reflect the client's medical history. Hemoglobin level is more related to oxygen-carrying capacity rather than pressure ulcer development. The Norton scale evaluates risk for developing pressure ulcers but is not typically part of a client's medical history.

2. What is the most important nursing action when administering IV potassium?

• A. Monitor for decreased urine output
• B. Administer via IV push
• C. Administer slowly and dilute in IV fluids
• D. Ensure the client drinks 500 mL of water before administration

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most important nursing action when administering IV potassium is to administer it slowly and dilute it in IV fluids. This approach helps prevent irritation and hyperkalemia. Monitoring for decreased urine output (Choice A) is important but not as critical as ensuring the safe administration of IV potassium. Administering potassium via IV push (Choice B) is unsafe and can lead to adverse effects. Ensuring the client drinks water before administration (Choice D) is not directly related to the safe administration of IV potassium.

3. A client is being cared for by a nurse with dehydration. What is the priority intervention?

• A. Administer antiemetics to reduce nausea
• B. Encourage the client to drink oral rehydration solutions
• C. Monitor the client's fluid and electrolyte levels
• D. Administer intravenous fluids

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the client's fluid and electrolyte levels. When caring for a client with dehydration, it is crucial to assess and monitor their fluid and electrolyte status to guide appropriate interventions. Administering antiemetics may help with nausea but does not address the underlying issue of dehydration. Encouraging the client to drink oral rehydration solutions is beneficial but may not be the immediate priority if the client is severely dehydrated. Administering intravenous fluids may be necessary based on the assessment of fluid and electrolyte levels, making monitoring these levels the priority intervention.

4. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has received a preoperative dose of morphine. Which of the following findings is the priority to report to the provider?

• A. Client reports nausea.
• B. Urinary output of 20 mL/hr.
• C. Oxygen saturation 90%.
• D. Respiratory rate 14/min.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An oxygen saturation of 90% is below the expected reference range and could indicate respiratory depression, a serious side effect of morphine. This finding requires immediate attention as it may lead to hypoxia. Nausea (choice A) is a common side effect of morphine but does not pose an immediate threat. A urinary output of 20 mL/hr (choice B) may indicate decreased renal perfusion but is not as critical as respiratory compromise. A respiratory rate of 14/min (choice D) is within the normal range and does not suggest immediate danger.

5. A nurse is performing vision testing for a client following a head injury. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as a problem with pupil accommodation?

• A. Pupils constrict when shifting gaze from near to far
• B. Pupils constrict when shifting gaze from far to near
• C. Lack of change in pupil size when shifting gaze from near to far
• D. Lack of change in pupil size when shifting gaze from far to near

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Pupil accommodation problems are indicated by the lack of change in size when shifting gaze from far to near. The correct answer is D because in pupil accommodation, the pupils should constrict when shifting gaze from far to near in order to adjust for near vision. Choices A and B describe normal responses of pupil constriction when shifting gaze, which do not indicate a problem. Choice C is incorrect as it describes a normal response of pupil size change when shifting gaze from near to far.

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