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1. A healthcare provider is caring for a client with a pressure ulcer and needs to review the client's medical history. Which of the following findings is expected?
- A. A Braden scale score of 20
- B. An albumin level of 3 g/dL
- C. A hemoglobin level of 13 g/dL
- D. A Norton scale score of 18
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A serum albumin level of 3 g/dL is indicative of poor nutrition, a common factor in the development of pressure ulcers. The Braden scale assesses the risk of developing pressure ulcers but does not reflect the client's medical history. Hemoglobin level is more related to oxygen-carrying capacity rather than pressure ulcer development. The Norton scale evaluates risk for developing pressure ulcers but is not typically part of a client's medical history.
2. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement for a client with hyperkalemia?
- A. Administer calcium gluconate
- B. Increase fluid intake to promote potassium excretion
- C. Administer a diuretic
- D. Administer sodium bicarbonate
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with hyperkalemia is to administer calcium gluconate. Calcium gluconate helps counteract the effects of hyperkalemia by stabilizing the cardiac cell membrane. Increasing fluid intake (Choice B) may not effectively lower potassium levels. Administering a diuretic (Choice C) or sodium bicarbonate (Choice D) is not the primary treatment for hyperkalemia and may not address the immediate need to lower potassium levels.
3. What are the key signs of infection after surgery?
- A. Redness
- B. Swelling
- C. Fever
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: After surgery, key signs of infection include redness, swelling, and fever. Redness and swelling can indicate inflammation at the surgical site, while fever is a systemic response to infection. Choosing 'All of the above' (Option D) is the correct answer because all three signs are commonly associated with post-surgical infections. Options A, B, and C are incorrect as each of them individually can be a sign of infection, but considering all three together provides a more comprehensive assessment for post-operative infection.
4. When managing a physically assaultive client, the nurse's INITIAL priority is to
- A. Restrict the client to the room
- B. Place the client under one-to-one supervision
- C. Restore the client's self-control and prevent further loss of control
- D. Clear the immediate area of other clients to prevent harm
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When dealing with a physically assaultive client, the initial priority is to focus on restoring the client's self-control and preventing further escalation. Restricting the client to the room (choice A) may escalate the situation and is not the initial priority. Placing the client under one-to-one supervision (choice B) is important but comes after ensuring the client's self-control. Clearing the immediate area of other clients (choice D) is essential for safety but is not the initial priority when compared to restoring the client's self-control.
5. A nurse is teaching a client who has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) about breathing exercises. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Use abdominal breathing during physical activity
- B. Inhale quickly and deeply through the nose
- C. Use pursed-lip breathing during physical activity
- D. Breathe quickly and deeply during exercise
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Use pursed-lip breathing during physical activity.' Pursed-lip breathing is a beneficial technique for clients with COPD as it helps improve airflow by keeping the airways open longer. Choice A is incorrect as abdominal breathing may not be as effective in COPD as pursed-lip breathing. Choice B, inhaling quickly and deeply through the nose, is not recommended as it can lead to hyperventilation. Choice D, breathing quickly and deeply during exercise, is also not suitable for clients with COPD as it can cause increased shortness of breath.
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