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1. A healthcare provider is caring for a client with a pressure ulcer and needs to review the client's medical history. Which of the following findings is expected?
- A. A Braden scale score of 20
- B. An albumin level of 3 g/dL
- C. A hemoglobin level of 13 g/dL
- D. A Norton scale score of 18
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A serum albumin level of 3 g/dL is indicative of poor nutrition, a common factor in the development of pressure ulcers. The Braden scale assesses the risk of developing pressure ulcers but does not reflect the client's medical history. Hemoglobin level is more related to oxygen-carrying capacity rather than pressure ulcer development. The Norton scale evaluates risk for developing pressure ulcers but is not typically part of a client's medical history.
2. Which dietary restriction should be taught to a client with chronic kidney disease?
- A. Increase potassium-rich foods
- B. Limit phosphorus and potassium intake
- C. Encourage increased protein intake
- D. Increase fluid intake
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Limit phosphorus and potassium intake. In chronic kidney disease, the kidneys are unable to effectively filter these minerals from the blood, leading to their accumulation and potential complications. Restricting phosphorus and potassium intake is crucial in managing the progression of the disease. Choice A is incorrect as increasing potassium-rich foods can worsen the condition. Choice C is also incorrect as excessive protein intake can put more strain on the kidneys. Choice D is not the priority; rather, fluid intake should be monitored based on individual needs and stage of kidney disease.
3. A nurse is preparing to perform a sterile dressing change. Which of the following actions should the nurse take when setting up the sterile field?
- A. Place the cap from the solution sterile side up on a clean surface.
- B. Open the outermost flap of the sterile kit away from the body.
- C. Place the sterile dressing within 1.25 cm (0.5 in) of the edge of the sterile field.
- D. Set up the sterile field 5 cm (2 in) above waist level.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: To maintain the sterility of the field, the nurse should place the cap from the solution sterile side up on a clean surface. This action helps prevent contamination. Choice B is incorrect because opening the outermost flap toward the body increases the risk of introducing contaminants onto the sterile field. Choice C is incorrect as the sterile dressing should be placed at least 2.5 cm (1 in) from the edge of the sterile field to prevent accidental contamination. Choice D is incorrect because setting up the sterile field above waist level could lead to inadvertent contact and compromise the field's sterility.
4. A nurse is reinforcing teaching about food selection with a client who has a moderate burn injury. Which of the following foods should the nurse recommend as being high in vitamin C?
- A. Tomatoes
- B. Carrots
- C. Avocados
- D. Apricots
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Tomatoes are high in vitamin C, which is crucial for wound healing, making them an excellent recommendation for a client with a burn injury. Carrots, avocados, and apricots are not as rich in vitamin C compared to tomatoes, and therefore, they are not the best choice for promoting healing in this scenario.
5. Which of the following is an early sign that suctioning is required for a client with a tracheostomy?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Irritability
- C. Confusion
- D. Hypotension
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Irritability is an early sign that suctioning is necessary to clear the airway in a client with a tracheostomy. When secretions build up in the tracheostomy tube, the client may become irritable due to the discomfort and the compromised airway. Bradycardia, confusion, and hypotension are not typically early signs that suctioning is required. Bradycardia may occur if the airway becomes severely compromised, confusion may be a late sign of hypoxia, and hypotension is not directly related to the need for suctioning in a client with a tracheostomy.
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