Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is caring for a client with a pressure ulcer and needs to review the client's medical history. Which of the following findings is expected?

• A. A Braden scale score of 20
• B. An albumin level of 3 g/dL
• C. A hemoglobin level of 13 g/dL
• D. A Norton scale score of 18

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A serum albumin level of 3 g/dL is indicative of poor nutrition, a common factor in the development of pressure ulcers. The Braden scale assesses the risk of developing pressure ulcers but does not reflect the client's medical history. Hemoglobin level is more related to oxygen-carrying capacity rather than pressure ulcer development. The Norton scale evaluates risk for developing pressure ulcers but is not typically part of a client's medical history.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

• A. Administer oxygen at 2L/min via nasal cannula
• B. Encourage pursed-lip breathing
• C. Position the client in high Fowler's position
• D. Encourage deep breathing and coughing

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with COPD is to encourage pursed-lip breathing. Pursed-lip breathing helps improve oxygenation by preventing airway collapse, slowing down the breathing rate, and promoting better gas exchange. Administering oxygen at 2L/min via nasal cannula is not the first-line intervention as it can cause oxygen toxicity in COPD patients. Positioning the client in high Fowler's position may improve ventilation but does not specifically address the breathing technique required for COPD. Encouraging deep breathing and coughing is generally not recommended for clients with COPD as it can lead to air trapping and increased work of breathing.

3. A nurse is planning care for a client who is receiving hemodialysis via an AV fistula. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

• A. Avoid taking blood pressures on the arm with the AV fistula.
• B. Check the fistula site daily for pallor.
• C. Place a warm compress over the fistula site every 4 hours.
• D. Keep the client's arm elevated on two pillows.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct intervention is to avoid taking blood pressures on the arm with the AV fistula. This is crucial to prevent complications such as damage to the fistula. Checking the fistula site for pallor is not as important as avoiding blood pressures on the affected arm. Placing warm compresses over the fistula site is not recommended as it can increase the risk of infection. Keeping the client's arm elevated on two pillows is not necessary for the care of an AV fistula.

4. What is the main symptom of left-sided heart failure?

• A. Shortness of breath
• B. Edema
• C. Increased heart rate
• D. Decreased urine output

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Shortness of breath is the main symptom of left-sided heart failure because it results from pulmonary congestion due to fluid buildup in the lungs. Edema, increased heart rate, and decreased urine output are associated with right-sided heart failure rather than left-sided heart failure.

5. A nurse is collecting data from a male client who is scheduled for a left inguinal herniorrhaphy. Which of the following findings is the priority for the nurse to report to the provider?

• A. High blood pressure
• B. Decreased bowel sounds
• C. Constipation
• D. Difficulty urinating

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Difficulty urinating.' This finding is crucial to report promptly as it can indicate a complication, such as urinary retention or injury to the urinary tract, which are significant concerns post-hernia surgery. High blood pressure (Choice A) may require monitoring but is not as urgent as difficulty urinating. Decreased bowel sounds (Choice B) and constipation (Choice C) are common after surgery and may resolve with appropriate interventions but are not as critical as addressing difficulty urinating.

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