Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is caring for a client with a pressure ulcer and needs to review the client's medical history. Which of the following findings is expected?

• A. A Braden scale score of 20
• B. An albumin level of 3 g/dL
• C. A hemoglobin level of 13 g/dL
• D. A Norton scale score of 18

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A serum albumin level of 3 g/dL is indicative of poor nutrition, a common factor in the development of pressure ulcers. The Braden scale assesses the risk of developing pressure ulcers but does not reflect the client's medical history. Hemoglobin level is more related to oxygen-carrying capacity rather than pressure ulcer development. The Norton scale evaluates risk for developing pressure ulcers but is not typically part of a client's medical history.

2. What are the key differences between viral and bacterial infections?

• A. Viral infections typically last longer than bacterial infections.
• B. Bacterial infections typically cause high fever.
• C. Both bacterial and viral infections cause rashes.
• D. Viral infections cause sudden onset of symptoms.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Viral infections typically last longer than bacterial infections. This is because viral infections often require the body's immune system to fight off the virus, leading to a longer duration of illness. Bacterial infections, on the other hand, often cause a rapid onset of symptoms due to the toxins produced by bacteria. Choice B is incorrect because not all bacterial infections cause high fever. Choice C is incorrect because rashes can be caused by both bacterial and viral infections, but not always. Choice D is incorrect because while some viral infections may cause a sudden onset of symptoms, it is not a key distinguishing factor between viral and bacterial infections.

3. What are the early signs and symptoms of sepsis?

• A. Increased heart rate and fever
• B. Low blood pressure and confusion
• C. Rapid breathing and sweating
• D. Abdominal pain and cyanosis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased heart rate and fever. In sepsis, an increased heart rate and fever are common early signs of systemic infection. While choices B, C, and D can be present in later stages of sepsis, they are not typically the initial signs. Low blood pressure and confusion may occur in severe sepsis or septic shock. Rapid breathing and sweating can be seen as sepsis progresses. Abdominal pain and cyanosis may develop as the condition advances but are not usually the earliest signs.

4. How should a healthcare professional assess and manage a patient with acute renal failure?

• A. Monitor urine output and administer diuretics
• B. Administer IV fluids and restrict potassium intake
• C. Monitor electrolyte levels and provide dietary education
• D. Administer potassium and restrict fluids

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In acute renal failure, it is crucial to monitor urine output to assess kidney function and fluid balance. Administering diuretics helps manage fluid levels by promoting urine production. Choice B is incorrect because administering IV fluids can worsen fluid overload in renal failure patients, and restricting potassium intake is not typically the initial approach. Choice C is not the primary intervention but is important for long-term management. Choice D is incorrect as administering potassium can be dangerous in renal failure, and restricting fluids can lead to dehydration.

5. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has diabetes mellitus and is receiving insulin. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Hemoglobin A1c of 6%
• B. Fasting blood glucose of 90 mg/dL
• C. Blood glucose of 200 mg/dL
• D. Blood glucose of 100 mg/dL

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A blood glucose level of 200 mg/dL indicates hyperglycemia and should be reported for potential insulin adjustment.

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