ATI LPN
ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2020
1. What is the most important intervention for a client with delirium?
- A. Administer sedative medication
- B. Identify any reversible causes of delirium
- C. Provide a low-stimulation environment
- D. Increase environmental stimulation
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to identify any reversible causes of delirium. Delirium can be caused by various factors such as infections, medications, or metabolic imbalances. Addressing these underlying causes can help resolve delirium. Administering sedative medication (Choice A) can worsen delirium by further altering mental status. Providing a low-stimulation environment (Choice C) is helpful to manage delirium symptoms, but it is not the most important intervention. Increasing environmental stimulation (Choice D) is contraindicated in delirium as it can exacerbate confusion and agitation.
2. A nurse is collecting data from a postpartum client who had a vaginal birth 2 days ago. Which of the following findings is the nurse's priority to report to the provider?
- A. Bright red bleeding
- B. Burning with urination
- C. Headache
- D. Heavy lochia flow
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Burning with urination.' Burning with urination can indicate a urinary tract infection postpartum, which requires immediate attention to prevent complications. Bright red bleeding and heavy lochia flow are expected findings in the early postpartum period as the uterus continues to contract and expel lochia. A headache alone is not uncommon postpartum and is often attributed to hormonal changes, dehydration, or fatigue, and can be managed with adequate rest, hydration, and pain relief. Therefore, the priority here is to address the potential infection indicated by burning with urination.
3. A client who is at 24 weeks of gestation is scheduled for a 1-hour glucose tolerance test. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in her teaching?
- A. You will need to drink the glucose solution 1 hour prior to the test.
- B. Limit your carbohydrate intake for 24 hours prior to the test.
- C. A blood glucose of 130 to 140 mg/dL is considered a positive screening result.
- D. You will need to fast for 8 hours prior to the test.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct statement to include in the teaching for a client scheduled for a 1-hour glucose tolerance test at 24 weeks of gestation is that a blood glucose level of 130 to 140 mg/dL is considered a positive screening result. This range indicates a potential issue with glucose metabolism and would prompt the need for a follow-up 3-hour glucose tolerance test to confirm the diagnosis of gestational diabetes mellitus. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. In a 1-hour glucose tolerance test, the glucose solution is typically consumed within a specific timeframe before the test, not necessarily 1 hour prior. There is usually no specific requirement to limit carbohydrate intake for 24 hours prior to the test. Fasting for 8 hours prior to the test is more common for a fasting glucose test, not a 1-hour glucose tolerance test.
4. A nurse is reviewing laboratory results for a client who has chronic kidney disease. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Hypernatremia
- B. Hypocalcemia
- C. Low potassium
- D. Low magnesium
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In chronic kidney disease, the kidneys have impaired ability to activate vitamin D, leading to decreased production of calcitriol. Calcitriol is essential for calcium absorption in the intestines. Therefore, hypocalcemia is a common finding in chronic kidney disease. Hypernatremia (increased sodium levels) is not typically associated with chronic kidney disease. Low potassium and low magnesium are possible electrolyte imbalances in chronic kidney disease, but they are not as directly related to the impaired activation of vitamin D as hypocalcemia.
5. A healthcare provider is educating a patient about the side effects of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs). Which side effect should the provider emphasize?
- A. Weight gain
- B. Increased libido
- C. Nausea
- D. Insomnia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When educating patients about SSRIs, it is crucial to emphasize the common side effect of nausea. Nausea is a frequently reported side effect of SSRIs that can impact adherence to treatment. By highlighting this side effect, patients can be better prepared and informed about what to expect when taking these medications. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as weight gain, increased libido, and insomnia are not typically associated with SSRIs as common side effects. Nausea is a more relevant and prevalent side effect to address with patients.
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