Nursing Elites

1. What is the most important intervention for a client with delirium?

• A. Administer sedative medication
• B. Identify any reversible causes of delirium
• C. Provide a low-stimulation environment
• D. Increase environmental stimulation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to identify any reversible causes of delirium. Delirium can be caused by various factors such as infections, medications, or metabolic imbalances. Addressing these underlying causes can help resolve delirium. Administering sedative medication (Choice A) can worsen delirium by further altering mental status. Providing a low-stimulation environment (Choice C) is helpful to manage delirium symptoms, but it is not the most important intervention. Increasing environmental stimulation (Choice D) is contraindicated in delirium as it can exacerbate confusion and agitation.

2. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results for a client who has Cushing's disease. The nurse should expect the client to have an increase in which of the following laboratory values?

• A. Serum glucose level.
• B. Serum calcium level.
• C. Lymphocyte count.
• D. Serum potassium level.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Serum glucose level. In Cushing's disease, there is an excess production of cortisol, leading to hyperglycemia. This results in an increase in serum glucose levels. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because Cushing's disease does not directly affect serum calcium levels, lymphocyte count, or serum potassium levels.

3. Which of the following findings should the nurse anticipate in the medical record of a client with a pressure ulcer?

• A. Serum albumin level of 3 g/dL
• B. Braden scale score of 20
• C. Norton scale score of 18
• D. Hemoglobin level of 13 g/dL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Serum albumin level of 3 g/dL. A serum albumin level of 3 g/dL indicates poor nutrition, which is commonly seen in clients with pressure ulcers. Choice B, a Braden scale score of 20, is incorrect because a higher Braden scale score indicates a lower risk of developing pressure ulcers. Choice C, a Norton scale score of 18, is incorrect as it is a tool used to assess the risk of developing pressure ulcers, not a finding in a client with an existing pressure ulcer. Choice D, a hemoglobin level of 13 g/dL, is unrelated to pressure ulcers and does not directly reflect the nutritional status associated with this condition.

4. A nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client with home oxygen therapy. Which of the following is essential for safety?

• A. Allow the client to smoke in designated outdoor areas
• B. Place the oxygen equipment 10 feet away from any open flames
• C. Keep oxygen tanks upright at all times
• D. Restrict fluid intake while using oxygen

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to keep oxygen tanks upright at all times. This is essential for safety as it prevents the tanks from falling and causing injury. Allowing the client to smoke in designated outdoor areas (Choice A) is unsafe as smoking near oxygen equipment can lead to a fire. Placing the oxygen equipment 10 feet away from any open flames (Choice B) is important to prevent fire hazards, but keeping the tanks upright is more directly related to preventing injuries. Restricting fluid intake while using oxygen (Choice D) is not necessary for safety in home oxygen therapy.

5. What are the early signs of a pulmonary embolism?

• A. Chest pain, shortness of breath, and tachycardia
• B. Fever, nausea, and vomiting
• C. Cough, cyanosis, and fatigue
• D. Abdominal pain and bradycardia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Chest pain, shortness of breath, and tachycardia. These are classic early signs of a pulmonary embolism. Chest pain may be sudden and sharp, worsened by deep breathing or coughing. Shortness of breath can be sudden and severe. Tachycardia (rapid heart rate) is another common symptom. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not represent typical early signs of a pulmonary embolism.

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