ATI LPN
ATI Community Health Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. When the occupational health nurse employs ergonomic principles, they are performing which of their roles?
- A. Health care provider
- B. Health educator
- C. Health care coordinator
- D. Environment manager
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When an occupational health nurse applies ergonomic principles, they are acting as an environment manager. Ergonomics involves optimizing the work environment for efficiency and safety by considering factors like workplace design, equipment, and furniture to enhance worker well-being and productivity. By focusing on ergonomics, the nurse aims to create a workspace that minimizes physical strain, reduces the risk of musculoskeletal injuries, and promotes overall health and comfort for the employees.
2. A client with preeclampsia is receiving magnesium sulfate intravenously. What action should the nurse take if the client develops toxicity?
- A. Position the client supine
- B. Prepare an IV bolus of dextrose 5%
- C. Administer calcium gluconate IV
- D. Administer methylergonovine IM
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In cases of magnesium sulfate toxicity, calcium gluconate is the antidote as it helps reverse the effects. Positioning the client supine (Choice A) may not directly address magnesium sulfate toxicity. Administering dextrose 5% (Choice B) is not the correct intervention for magnesium sulfate toxicity. Methylergonovine IM (Choice D) is used to manage postpartum hemorrhage, not magnesium sulfate toxicity.
3. A patient with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) is prescribed buspirone. Which statement by the patient indicates effective understanding of the medication?
- A. I will take this medication only when I feel anxious.
- B. I should start feeling less anxious within a few days.
- C. This medication can be addictive if taken for a long time.
- D. It may take a few weeks for this medication to become effective.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because buspirone may take a few weeks to become effective in treating generalized anxiety disorder (GAD). Patients should be aware of this delay and not expect immediate relief from their symptoms. Choice A is incorrect because buspirone is typically taken regularly, not just when feeling anxious. Choice B is incorrect because the onset of action for buspirone is gradual, and patients should not expect immediate relief within a few days. Choice C is incorrect because buspirone is not considered addictive, unlike some other medications used for anxiety disorders.
4. A client with cirrhosis of the liver is being cared for by the healthcare team. Which clinical manifestation indicates that the client has developed hepatic encephalopathy?
- A. Asterixis.
- B. Jaundice.
- C. Ascites.
- D. Splenomegaly.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Asterixis, also known as flapping tremor, is a characteristic sign of hepatic encephalopathy, a severe complication of liver cirrhosis. Hepatic encephalopathy results from the liver's inability to detoxify substances in the body, leading to neurologic manifestations such as changes in mental status, confusion, and asterixis.
5. A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is experiencing severe dyspnea. What position should the nurse encourage the patient to assume?
- A. Supine
- B. Prone
- C. High Fowler's
- D. Trendelenburg
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The High Fowler's position is the most appropriate position for a patient with COPD experiencing severe dyspnea. This position helps improve lung expansion and reduce dyspnea by allowing the diaphragm to move more freely and increasing the efficiency of breathing. It also helps reduce the work of breathing and enhances oxygenation in patients with COPD. Supine position (Choice A) may worsen dyspnea by limiting lung expansion. Prone position (Choice B) is not ideal for COPD patients experiencing severe dyspnea as it may restrict breathing. Trendelenburg position (Choice D) is not recommended for COPD patients with dyspnea as it can further compromise breathing.
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