Nursing Elites

1. When assisting ventilations in a 4-year-old child with a bag-valve mask, what should the EMT do?

• A. Deliver each breath over 2 to 3 seconds.
• B. Ensure the appropriate mask size is used.
• C. Block the pop-off valve if needed to achieve adequate chest rise.
• D. Reassess the pulse rate after 60 seconds.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When assisting ventilations in a 4-year-old child with a bag-valve mask, the EMT should block the pop-off valve if needed to achieve adequate chest rise. This action helps ensure effective ventilation and adequate oxygenation in the child. Blocking the pop-off valve allows for better control over the volume of air delivered and can help maintain positive pressure in the airway, assisting in improving oxygenation and ventilation in the child. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because delivering each breath over 2 to 3 seconds is a general guideline but may need adjustment based on patient response, ensuring the appropriate mask size is important but not the primary concern in this scenario, and reassessing the pulse rate is not directly related to the ventilation technique being discussed.

2. Nana Esi is an 11-year-old girl diagnosed with type 1 diabetes mellitus (DM). She asks her attending nurse why she can't take a pill rather than shots like her grandmother does. Which of the following would be the nurse's best reply?

• A. If your blood glucose levels are controlled, you can switch to using pills.
• B. The pills correct fat and protein metabolism, not carbohydrate metabolism.
• C. Your body does not make insulin, so the insulin injections help to replace it.
• D. The pills work on the adult pancreas; you can switch when you are 18.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse's best reply to Nana Esi is option C: 'Your body does not make insulin, so the insulin injections help to replace it.' In type 1 diabetes, the body's immune system destroys the insulin-producing beta cells in the pancreas. As a result, individuals with type 1 diabetes do not produce insulin, necessitating insulin injections for survival. Option A is incorrect as type 1 diabetes always requires insulin therapy. Option B is inaccurate as pills do not replace the function of insulin. Option D is also incorrect as there is no age restriction on using insulin therapy for type 1 diabetes.

3. How would you classify a child at two years of age who has fast breathing without chest indrawing or stridor when calm?

• A. Very severe disease
• B. Pneumonia
• C. No pneumonia
• D. Local infection

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In pediatric clinical assessment, a child at two years of age with fast breathing but without chest indrawing or stridor when calm is classified as having pneumonia. Fast breathing in this context is a key symptom used in the Integrated Management of Childhood Illness (IMCI) guidelines to diagnose pneumonia in children under five years old. The absence of chest indrawing or stridor when the child is calm helps differentiate this case from other respiratory conditions, making pneumonia the likely classification. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. 'Very severe disease' is too broad and not specific to the symptoms described. 'No pneumonia' is also incorrect as the symptoms match the presentation of pneumonia. 'Local infection' is too vague and does not specifically address the respiratory symptoms observed.

4. What is the pattern of fever in enteric fever?

• A. Intermittent fever
• B. Relapsing fever
• C. Pel-Ebstein fever
• D. Continuous fever

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Enteric fever, caused by Salmonella typhi or paratyphi, is characterized by a continuous fever pattern. The fever typically persists without significant fluctuations, distinguishing it from diseases with intermittent or relapsing fever patterns. Pel-Ebstein fever, a cyclic pattern of fever seen in Hodgkin's lymphoma, is not associated with enteric fever. Relapsing fever is a characteristic of diseases like Borrelia recurrentis infection. Intermittent fever is seen in conditions like malaria.

5. A 30-year-old woman is 22 weeks pregnant with her first child. She tells you that her rings are not fitting as loosely as they usually do and that her ankles are swollen. Her blood pressure is 150/86 mm Hg. She is MOST likely experiencing:

• A. a condition unrelated to pregnancy.
• B. gestational diabetes.
• C. a hypertensive emergency.
• D. preeclampsia.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The symptoms of swollen ankles, tight rings, and elevated blood pressure in a pregnant woman at 22 weeks gestation are concerning for preeclampsia. Preeclampsia is characterized by high blood pressure and signs of organ damage, commonly seen with symptoms such as swelling (edema) and protein in the urine. It is crucial to monitor and manage preeclampsia promptly as it can lead to severe complications for both the mother and the baby.

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