Nursing Elites

1. A 30-year-old woman is 22 weeks pregnant with her first child. She tells you that her rings are not fitting as loosely as they usually do and that her ankles are swollen. Her blood pressure is 150/86 mm Hg. She is MOST likely experiencing:

• A. a condition unrelated to pregnancy.
• B. gestational diabetes.
• C. a hypertensive emergency.
• D. preeclampsia.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The symptoms of swollen ankles, tight rings, and elevated blood pressure in a pregnant woman at 22 weeks gestation are concerning for preeclampsia. Preeclampsia is characterized by high blood pressure and signs of organ damage, commonly seen with symptoms such as swelling (edema) and protein in the urine. It is crucial to monitor and manage preeclampsia promptly as it can lead to severe complications for both the mother and the baby.

2. A postpartum client who delivered a healthy newborn is being assessed by a nurse. Which finding would indicate a complication during the early postpartum period?

• A. Moderate lochia rubra
• B. Bradycardia
• C. Elevated blood pressure
• D. Uterine contraction

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An elevated blood pressure in the postpartum period may indicate the onset of preeclampsia, a serious complication that requires immediate medical attention. Preeclampsia is characterized by high blood pressure, protein in the urine, and sometimes swelling in the hands and face. If left untreated, preeclampsia can lead to serious complications for both the mother and the baby. Therefore, it is crucial for healthcare providers to closely monitor blood pressure levels in postpartum clients to promptly address any signs of preeclampsia. Choices A, B, and D are not indicative of a complication during the early postpartum period. Moderate lochia rubra is a normal finding as it indicates the normal discharge of blood and tissue from the uterus after childbirth. Bradycardia, a slow heart rate, is not typically a concern in the absence of other symptoms or signs of distress. Uterine contractions are essential for involution and are expected in the postpartum period.

3. When does the rash in typhoid fever typically appear?

• A. On the second day after symptoms appear
• B. On the third day after symptoms appear
• C. On the fourth day after symptoms appear
• D. On the seventh day after symptoms appear

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In typhoid fever, the rash typically appears on the third day after symptoms first appear. This rash can help in diagnosing the disease along with other symptoms such as fever, malaise, and abdominal pain. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because the rash in typhoid fever usually appears on the third day, not the second, fourth, or seventh day after the symptoms begin.

4. Serwaa, a 26-year-old mother has brought her daughter to the OPD with signs of lower respiratory tract infections. The following are the diagnoses that can be given to the daughter except:

• A. Pneumonia
• B. Asthma
• C. Bronchiolitis
• D. Coryza

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Coryza, also known as the common cold, primarily affects the upper respiratory tract and is not typically associated with lower respiratory tract infections. Pneumonia, asthma, and bronchiolitis are conditions that can manifest as lower respiratory tract infections.

5. What percentage of total body surface area has been burned in a 5-year-old child who experienced partial-thickness burns to his head, anterior chest, and both upper extremities?

• A. 45%
• B. 63%
• C. 72%
• D. 54%

Correct answer: A

Rationale: According to the pediatric rule of nines, the head and neck represent 18%, the anterior chest and abdomen 18%, and each arm 9%. By adding these percentages (18% + 18% + 9% + 9% = 45%), we find that 45% of the total body surface area has been burned in this child.

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