a 30 year old woman is 22 weeks pregnant with her first child she tells you that her rings are not fitting as loosely as they usually do and that her
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ATI LPN

LPN Pediatrics

1. A 30-year-old woman is 22 weeks pregnant with her first child. She tells you that her rings are not fitting as loosely as they usually do and that her ankles are swollen. Her blood pressure is 150/86 mm Hg. She is MOST likely experiencing:

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The symptoms of swollen ankles, tight rings, and elevated blood pressure in a pregnant woman at 22 weeks gestation are concerning for preeclampsia. Preeclampsia is characterized by high blood pressure and signs of organ damage, commonly seen with symptoms such as swelling (edema) and protein in the urine. It is crucial to monitor and manage preeclampsia promptly as it can lead to severe complications for both the mother and the baby.

2. Your assessment of a newborn reveals cyanosis to the chest and face and a heart rate of 90 beats/min. What should you do first?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a newborn with cyanosis to the chest and face and a heart rate of 90 beats/min, the priority action is to begin artificial ventilations. A heart rate below 100 beats/min with cyanosis indicates a need for immediate respiratory support to improve oxygenation. Drying the infant briskly or suctioning the mouth may be necessary later but are not the initial priority. Chest compressions are not indicated as the heart rate is above 60 beats/min.

3. Which position is MOST appropriate for a mother in labor with a prolapsed umbilical cord?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most appropriate position for a mother in labor with a prolapsed umbilical cord is supine with hips elevated. This position helps reduce pressure on the cord, preventing further complications and ensuring optimal blood flow to the fetus.

4. A child with type 1 diabetes mellitus is brought to the emergency department by the mother, who states that the child has been complaining of abdominal pain and has been lethargic. Diabetic ketoacidosis is diagnosed. Anticipating the plan of care, the nurse prepares to administer which type of intravenous (IV) infusion?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the management of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), the initial intravenous (IV) fluid of choice is normal saline infusion. Normal saline helps to correct dehydration and electrolyte imbalances commonly seen in DKA patients. It does not contain glucose to prevent worsening hyperglycemia or ketoacidosis. NPH insulin infusion is not the initial treatment for DKA; it is typically used after fluid resuscitation. Potassium infusion may be required in DKA to address electrolyte imbalances, but normal saline is the priority for fluid resuscitation.

5. When treating Baby John, who has been diagnosed with a lower respiratory infection, the selection of drugs of choice for the treatment depends primarily on:

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The primary factor in selecting drugs for the treatment of a lower respiratory infection in Baby John is the sensitivity of the organism causing the infection. The choice of antibiotics should be guided by the susceptibility of the specific pathogen to ensure effective treatment and prevent resistance.

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