a 30 year old woman is 22 weeks pregnant with her first child she tells you that her rings are not fitting as loosely as they usually do and that her
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

LPN Pediatrics

1. A 30-year-old woman is 22 weeks pregnant with her first child. She tells you that her rings are not fitting as loosely as they usually do and that her ankles are swollen. Her blood pressure is 150/86 mm Hg. She is MOST likely experiencing:

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The symptoms of swollen ankles, tight rings, and elevated blood pressure in a pregnant woman at 22 weeks gestation are concerning for preeclampsia. Preeclampsia is characterized by high blood pressure and signs of organ damage, commonly seen with symptoms such as swelling (edema) and protein in the urine. It is crucial to monitor and manage preeclampsia promptly as it can lead to severe complications for both the mother and the baby.

2. A 3-year-old boy is found to be in cardiopulmonary arrest. As you begin one-rescuer CPR, your partner prepares the AED. What is the appropriate compression to ventilation ratio for this child?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct compression to ventilation ratio for a single rescuer performing CPR on a child is 30:2. This ratio ensures adequate circulation and oxygenation during CPR. 30 compressions help maintain blood flow, while 2 rescue breaths provide oxygenation. Choice A (3:01) is incorrect as it does not follow the standard CPR guidelines for children. Choice C (15:2) is incorrect as it is the ratio used for adult CPR. Choice D (5:1) is incorrect as it is not the recommended ratio for child CPR.

3. Which type of diabetes mellitus (DM) is most likely the result of heterogeneous risk factors, making it preventable?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Type 2 diabetes mellitus is most likely the result of heterogeneous risk factors, such as lifestyle choices and genetics, making it preventable. Type 1 diabetes, on the other hand, is an autoimmune condition that is not preventable. Gestational diabetes occurs during pregnancy and is not entirely preventable. Type 1 and 2 diabetes are distinct conditions, with Type 2 being the type associated with preventable risk factors.

4. A postpartum client asks the nurse about resuming sexual activity. What is the nurse's best response?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The best response for the nurse is to advise the postpartum client to wait until the postpartum check-up before resuming sexual activity. This allows for complete healing to ensure the client's well-being and provides an opportunity to address any concerns with the healthcare provider. Choice A is incorrect because resuming sexual activity should be based on medical advice rather than personal readiness. Choice C is incorrect as the 6-week recommendation is a general guideline but individual circumstances may vary. Choice D is incorrect as the cessation of lochia is not the sole indicator for safe resumption of sexual activity.

5. A 3-year-old is seen in the clinic and is diagnosed with an ear infection. The father reports that the child was awake several times during the night, crying. The PRIORITY nursing diagnosis for this child is:

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The priority nursing diagnosis for a child diagnosed with an ear infection and experiencing nighttime awakenings and crying would be 'Pain related to ear infection.' Pain management is crucial to ensure the child's comfort and well-being, which can also impact their sleep patterns. Addressing the pain as a priority can lead to improved sleep and overall recovery for the child.

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