Nursing Elites

1. A 30-year-old woman is 22 weeks pregnant with her first child. She tells you that her rings are not fitting as loosely as they usually do and that her ankles are swollen. Her blood pressure is 150/86 mm Hg. She is MOST likely experiencing:

• A. a condition unrelated to pregnancy.
• B. gestational diabetes.
• C. a hypertensive emergency.
• D. preeclampsia.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The symptoms of swollen ankles, tight rings, and elevated blood pressure in a pregnant woman at 22 weeks gestation are concerning for preeclampsia. Preeclampsia is characterized by high blood pressure and signs of organ damage, commonly seen with symptoms such as swelling (edema) and protein in the urine. It is crucial to monitor and manage preeclampsia promptly as it can lead to severe complications for both the mother and the baby.

2. General guidelines when assessing a 2-year-old child with abdominal pain and adequate perfusion include:

• A. placing the child supine and palpating the abdomen.
• B. separating the child from the parent to ensure a reliable examination.
• C. examining the child in the parent's arms.
• D. palpating the painful area of the abdomen first.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When assessing a 2-year-old child with abdominal pain and adequate perfusion, it is essential to examine the child in the parent's arms. This approach can help maintain the child's comfort, keep them calm, and increase their cooperation during the assessment. Placing the child supine and palpating the abdomen (Choice A) can be distressing and uncomfortable for the child. Separating the child from the parent (Choice B) may cause additional stress and hinder the examination process. Palpating the painful area first (Choice D) can lead to increased discomfort and resistance from the child.

3. Which position is MOST appropriate for a mother in labor with a prolapsed umbilical cord?

• A. Supine with legs elevated
• B. Supine with hips elevated
• C. Left lateral recumbent
• D. Left side with legs elevated

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most appropriate position for a mother in labor with a prolapsed umbilical cord is supine with hips elevated. This position helps reduce pressure on the cord, preventing further complications and ensuring optimal blood flow to the fetus.

4. You are assessing a 26-year-old woman who is 38 weeks pregnant and is in labor. She tells you that she was pregnant once before but had a miscarriage at 19 weeks. You should document her obstetric history as:

• A. gravida 2, para 1.
• B. gravida 2, para 0.
• C. gravida 1, para 1.
• D. gravida 0, para 2.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In obstetrics, gravida indicates the number of pregnancies, including the current one. Para indicates the number of pregnancies carried to viability (20 weeks or more). Since the patient has been pregnant twice but only carried one pregnancy past 20 weeks, her obstetric history should be documented as gravida 2, para 0. The miscarriage at 19 weeks does not contribute to the para count. Choice A (gravida 2, para 1) would indicate that she has had two pregnancies with one resulting in a live birth, which is incorrect. Choice C (gravida 1, para 1) would indicate that she has had one pregnancy with one live birth, which does not reflect her obstetric history. Choice D (gravida 0, para 2) would indicate that she has never been pregnant past 20 weeks, which is also inaccurate.

5. In the treatment of an infected hematoma, which of the following is NOT recommended?

• A. Incision and drainage
• B. Systemic antibiotics
• C. A and B
• D. Vitamin E

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Vitamin E is not a standard treatment for infected hematomas. The primary interventions for infected hematomas typically involve incision and drainage to remove infected fluid and debris, along with the administration of systemic antibiotics to combat the infection. Vitamin E does not play a significant role in the treatment of infected hematomas and is therefore not recommended as a primary treatment option. Choice A (Incision and drainage) and Choice B (Systemic antibiotics) are recommended treatments for infected hematomas as they help in removing infected fluid and combating the infection, respectively. Therefore, the correct answer is D, Vitamin E.

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