Nursing Elites

1. A 30-year-old woman is 22 weeks pregnant with her first child. She tells you that her rings are not fitting as loosely as they usually do and that her ankles are swollen. Her blood pressure is 150/86 mm Hg. She is MOST likely experiencing:

• A. a condition unrelated to pregnancy.
• B. gestational diabetes.
• C. a hypertensive emergency.
• D. preeclampsia.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The symptoms of swollen ankles, tight rings, and elevated blood pressure in a pregnant woman at 22 weeks gestation are concerning for preeclampsia. Preeclampsia is characterized by high blood pressure and signs of organ damage, commonly seen with symptoms such as swelling (edema) and protein in the urine. It is crucial to monitor and manage preeclampsia promptly as it can lead to severe complications for both the mother and the baby.

2. A child with type 1 diabetes mellitus is brought to the emergency department by the mother, who states that the child has been complaining of abdominal pain and has been lethargic. Diabetic ketoacidosis is diagnosed. Anticipating the plan of care, the nurse prepares to administer which type of intravenous (IV) infusion?

• A. 5% dextrose infusion
• B. Normal saline infusion
• C. NPH insulin infusion
• D. Potassium infusion

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the management of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), the initial intravenous (IV) fluid of choice is normal saline infusion. Normal saline helps to correct dehydration and electrolyte imbalances commonly seen in DKA patients. It does not contain glucose to prevent worsening hyperglycemia or ketoacidosis. NPH insulin infusion is not the initial treatment for DKA; it is typically used after fluid resuscitation. Potassium infusion may be required in DKA to address electrolyte imbalances, but normal saline is the priority for fluid resuscitation.

3. A clinic nurse reviews the record of a child just seen by a doctor and diagnosed with suspected aortic stenosis. The nurse expects to note documentation of which clinical manifestation specifically found in this disorder?

• A. Pallor
• B. Hyperactivity
• C. Exercise intolerance
• D. Gastrointestinal disturbances

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Aortic stenosis is a condition characterized by the narrowing of the aortic valve, leading to reduced blood flow from the heart to the body. This narrowing restricts the amount of oxygenated blood that can reach various tissues, including muscles. As a result, individuals with aortic stenosis may experience exercise intolerance, as their muscles may not receive an adequate oxygen supply during physical activity. This can manifest as fatigue, shortness of breath, and overall decreased exercise capacity. Pallor (choice A) is a pale appearance that may be seen in anemia or other conditions affecting blood flow but is not specific to aortic stenosis. Hyperactivity (choice B) and gastrointestinal disturbances (choice D) are not typically associated with aortic stenosis.

4. A postpartum client asks the nurse about resuming sexual activity. What is the nurse's best response?

• A. You can resume sexual activity as soon as you feel ready.
• B. It is best to wait until your postpartum check-up before resuming sexual activity.
• C. You should wait at least 6 weeks before resuming sexual activity.
• D. It is safe to resume sexual activity once your lochia has stopped.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The best response for the nurse is to advise the postpartum client to wait until the postpartum check-up before resuming sexual activity. This allows for complete healing to ensure the client's well-being and provides an opportunity to address any concerns with the healthcare provider. Choice A is incorrect because resuming sexual activity should be based on medical advice rather than personal readiness. Choice C is incorrect as the 6-week recommendation is a general guideline but individual circumstances may vary. Choice D is incorrect as the cessation of lochia is not the sole indicator for safe resumption of sexual activity.

5. General guidelines when assessing a 2-year-old child with abdominal pain and adequate perfusion include:

• A. placing the child supine and palpating the abdomen.
• B. separating the child from the parent to ensure a reliable examination.
• C. examining the child in the parent's arms.
• D. palpating the painful area of the abdomen first.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When assessing a 2-year-old child with abdominal pain and adequate perfusion, it is essential to examine the child in the parent's arms. This approach can help maintain the child's comfort, keep them calm, and increase their cooperation during the assessment. Placing the child supine and palpating the abdomen (Choice A) can be distressing and uncomfortable for the child. Separating the child from the parent (Choice B) may cause additional stress and hinder the examination process. Palpating the painful area first (Choice D) can lead to increased discomfort and resistance from the child.

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