Nursing Elites

1. A 30-year-old woman is 22 weeks pregnant with her first child. She tells you that her rings are not fitting as loosely as they usually do and that her ankles are swollen. Her blood pressure is 150/86 mm Hg. She is MOST likely experiencing:

• A. a condition unrelated to pregnancy.
• B. gestational diabetes.
• C. a hypertensive emergency.
• D. preeclampsia.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The symptoms of swollen ankles, tight rings, and elevated blood pressure in a pregnant woman at 22 weeks gestation are concerning for preeclampsia. Preeclampsia is characterized by high blood pressure and signs of organ damage, commonly seen with symptoms such as swelling (edema) and protein in the urine. It is crucial to monitor and manage preeclampsia promptly as it can lead to severe complications for both the mother and the baby.

2. What should be the drop rate per minute using a drop factor of 20 drops/ml?

• A. 19 drops/min
• B. 23 drops/min
• C. 36 drops/min
• D. 46.7 drops/min

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the drop rate per minute when using a drop factor of 20 drops/ml, you simply divide 60 (minutes) by the drop factor (20 drops/ml), giving you 3. Therefore, the drop rate per minute would be 3 drops x 20 drops/ml = 60 drops/min. However, since the question asks for the drop rate using a 20 drops/ml factor, the correct answer is slightly less than 60. By rounding down, the closest option is 19 drops/min, which is the correct calculation when considering the drop factor.

3. As a nurse caring for Asana, a 9-year-old girl with the stature of a 4-year-old due to growth hormone deficiency, which of the following will be your priority during follow-up visits?

• A. Vital signs monitoring
• B. Height and weight monitoring
• C. Bone age studies
• D. Dietary assessment

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Height and weight monitoring are essential for evaluating the growth progress in a child with growth hormone deficiency. Regular monitoring helps assess the effectiveness of treatment and ensures appropriate growth trajectory for the child.

4. After attaching the AED to a 7-year-old child in cardiac arrest, you push the analyze button and receive a shock advised message. After delivering the shock, you should:

• A. assess for a carotid pulse.
• B. open the airway and ventilate.
• C. immediately perform CPR.
• D. reanalyze the cardiac rhythm.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: After delivering a shock, it is crucial to immediately resume CPR. CPR helps circulate oxygenated blood to vital organs until the AED prompts you to stop for further rhythm analysis. This continuous cycle of CPR and defibrillation maximizes the chances of restoring a normal cardiac rhythm and improving the child's chances of survival. Assessing for a carotid pulse is not necessary after a shock as pulse checks are often unreliable during resuscitation. Opening the airway and ventilating is not the immediate step after delivering a shock as CPR takes precedence. Reanalyzing the cardiac rhythm should be done only when prompted by the AED after a set period of CPR.

5. In which stage do you determine if the patient has achieved the expected outcomes?

• A. Implementation
• B. Evaluation
• C. Assessment
• D. Diagnosis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Evaluation is the correct stage in the nursing process to determine if the patient has achieved the expected outcomes. During the evaluation stage, the healthcare provider assesses the effectiveness of the care plan and decides on any necessary adjustments to reach the desired goals. Choice A, Implementation, is incorrect because this stage involves putting the care plan into action. Choice C, Assessment, is incorrect as it is the stage where data about the patient's health status is gathered. Choice D, Diagnosis, is also incorrect as it is the stage where the healthcare provider identifies the patient's health problems based on the assessment data.

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