Nursing Elites

1. What is the appropriate ventilation rate for an apneic infant?

• A. 8 to 10 breaths/min.
• B. 10 to 12 breaths/min.
• C. 12 to 20 breaths/min.
• D. 20 to 30 breaths/min.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During resuscitation of an apneic infant, the appropriate ventilation rate is 12 to 20 breaths per minute. This rate helps provide adequate oxygenation and ventilation without causing harm to the infant. Choice A (8 to 10 breaths/min) is too low and may not provide sufficient ventilation. Choice B (10 to 12 breaths/min) is slightly below the recommended range, which may not be optimal for effective resuscitation. Choice D (20 to 30 breaths/min) is too high and may lead to overventilation and potential harm to the infant by causing hypocapnia.

2. What comment made by a parent of a 1-month-old would alert the nurse about the presence of a congenital heart defect?

• A. He is always hungry.
• B. He tires out during feedings.
• C. He is fussy for several hours every day.
• D. He sleeps all the time.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Observing a 1-month-old tiring out during feedings should alert the nurse to the possibility of a congenital heart defect. This symptom may indicate that the infant is expending excess energy to compensate for a heart issue, leading to fatigue during feeding. Choices A, C, and D do not directly relate to a congenital heart defect. Being always hungry, fussy, or sleeping a lot are not specific signs of a congenital heart defect in a 1-month-old.

3. A postpartum client who delivered a healthy newborn is being assessed by a nurse. Which finding would indicate a complication during the early postpartum period?

• A. Moderate lochia rubra
• B. Bradycardia
• C. Elevated blood pressure
• D. Uterine contraction

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An elevated blood pressure in the postpartum period may indicate the onset of preeclampsia, a serious complication that requires immediate medical attention. Preeclampsia is characterized by high blood pressure, protein in the urine, and sometimes swelling in the hands and face. If left untreated, preeclampsia can lead to serious complications for both the mother and the baby. Therefore, it is crucial for healthcare providers to closely monitor blood pressure levels in postpartum clients to promptly address any signs of preeclampsia. Choices A, B, and D are not indicative of a complication during the early postpartum period. Moderate lochia rubra is a normal finding as it indicates the normal discharge of blood and tissue from the uterus after childbirth. Bradycardia, a slow heart rate, is not typically a concern in the absence of other symptoms or signs of distress. Uterine contractions are essential for involution and are expected in the postpartum period.

4. A 2-year-old client is admitted for an acute asthma episode. The hospital provides family-centered care. In explaining the program to the parents, the nurse would explain that the parents are:

• A. Required to implement all personal hygiene care for their child.
• B. Encouraged to be as involved with the child's care as they are comfortable being.
• C. Requested to administer all oral medications.
• D. Expected to be present at the child's bedside.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Family-centered care involves encouraging parents to actively participate in their child's care based on their comfort level. This approach promotes collaboration between healthcare providers and families, enhancing the quality of care and ensuring the family's involvement in decision-making. Choice A is incorrect because parents are encouraged to participate, not required to implement all personal hygiene care. Choice C is incorrect as it implies a specific action rather than the broader concept of involvement. Choice D is incorrect as it focuses solely on physical presence rather than active participation in care.

5. The healthcare provider assesses the newborn's ears to be parallel to the outer and inner canthus of the eye. The healthcare provider documents this finding to be which of the following?

• A. A normal position
• B. A possible chromosomal abnormality
• C. Facial paralysis
• D. Prematurity

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When the top of the ear (pinna) is parallel to the outer and inner canthus of the eye, it is considered a normal position in a newborn. This alignment is an important assessment to ensure normal development and anatomy. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the parallel alignment of the ears to the outer and inner canthus of the eye is not indicative of a possible chromosomal abnormality, facial paralysis, or prematurity. It is simply a normal anatomical finding in a newborn.

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