a nurse is caring for a client who is receiving furosemide which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor
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ATI LPN

ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Quizlet

1. A client is receiving furosemide. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Potassium. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium depletion through increased urinary excretion. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent hypokalemia, which can lead to cardiac dysrhythmias, muscle weakness, and other serious complications. Monitoring sodium, calcium, and magnesium levels is not typically associated with furosemide therapy, making choices A, C, and D incorrect.

2. A nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client with home oxygen therapy. What safety measure should the nurse emphasize?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct safety measure that the nurse should emphasize is to keep oxygen tanks upright and away from heat sources. This is crucial to prevent the risk of fire or explosion. Choice A is incorrect as smoking near oxygen can lead to a fire hazard. Choice C is also incorrect as storing oxygen tanks in enclosed spaces can be dangerous. Choice D, although related to safety, does not address the immediate risk of keeping oxygen tanks away from heat sources.

3. A client receiving chemotherapy is experiencing fatigue. Which intervention should the nurse implement to manage the client's fatigue?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct intervention to manage fatigue in a client receiving chemotherapy is to encourage the client to take short naps during the day. Fatigue is a common side effect of chemotherapy, and allowing the client to rest can help combat this symptom. Instructing the client to remain on bedrest (Choice B) is not recommended as it may lead to deconditioning and worsen fatigue. Providing a high-calorie diet (Choice C) may be beneficial for overall nutrition but does not directly address fatigue. Encouraging the client to increase activity levels (Choice D) may exacerbate fatigue instead of alleviating it.

4. A nurse assisting with a childbirth class is discussing nonpharmacological strategies used during labor. Which of the following statements by a client indicates an understanding of cutaneous stimulation?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Apply counter-pressure for back pain.' Counter-pressure involves applying pressure to the lower back to alleviate pain during labor. This technique is a form of cutaneous stimulation, which can help with pain relief. Choice B, deep breathing exercises, is a form of relaxation technique and does not directly involve cutaneous stimulation. Choice C, visualizing the baby's head, is a mental imagery technique and does not involve physical stimulation of the skin. Choice D, massage therapy, is a tactile stimulation technique but is not specifically focused on back pain relief through counter-pressure.

5. A client with a tracheostomy is exhibiting signs of respiratory distress. What is the nurse's immediate priority?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client with a tracheostomy is experiencing respiratory distress, the immediate priority for the nurse is to suction the tracheostomy. This action helps clear the airway of secretions and ensures that the client can breathe effectively. Increasing the oxygen flow rate may be necessary but addressing the airway obstruction is more critical. Notifying the physician immediately is important but may cause a delay in addressing the immediate need for airway clearance. Administering a bronchodilator may help with bronchospasm but should not take precedence over ensuring a clear airway in a client with respiratory distress.

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