a nurse is caring for a client who is receiving furosemide which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor
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ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Quizlet

1. A client is receiving furosemide. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Potassium. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium depletion through increased urinary excretion. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent hypokalemia, which can lead to cardiac dysrhythmias, muscle weakness, and other serious complications. Monitoring sodium, calcium, and magnesium levels is not typically associated with furosemide therapy, making choices A, C, and D incorrect.

2. What is the right to make one's own personal decisions, even though those decisions might not be in the person's best interest?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Autonomy. Autonomy is the right to make one's own decisions, even if they may not be in the person's best interest. Autonomy emphasizes an individual's freedom to choose and act according to their own values and beliefs. Non-maleficence (B) refers to the principle of 'do no harm,' Justice (C) refers to fairness and equality in the distribution of resources or benefits, and Beneficence (D) refers to the obligation to do good and act in the patient's best interest.

3. A nurse is teaching a client who has irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) about dietary modifications. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Eat small, frequent meals.' Eating small, frequent meals helps manage IBS symptoms by avoiding overloading the digestive system. Choice A is incorrect because increasing fiber intake may worsen symptoms in some individuals with IBS. Choice B is not a blanket recommendation for all IBS patients; some may tolerate dairy products well. Choice D is incorrect as fruits and vegetables are important sources of nutrients and should not be completely avoided unless specific triggers are identified.

4. How should a healthcare provider respond to a patient with a suspected pulmonary embolism?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering oxygen and calling for emergency assistance are the immediate priorities when managing a suspected pulmonary embolism. Oxygen helps support the patient's respiratory function, while emergency assistance is crucial for further evaluation and treatment. Positioning the patient in a prone position or giving fluids can worsen the condition by impeding blood flow. Administering anticoagulants may be part of the treatment plan but is not the initial response. Thrombolytics and chest physiotherapy are not first-line treatments for suspected pulmonary embolism and can even be harmful without prior evaluation.

5. When reviewing the medical record of a client with dementia, what should the nurse prioritize addressing?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When caring for clients with dementia, addressing restlessness and agitation is a priority as it can lead to distress, safety risks, and potential harm to the client or others. Restlessness and agitation are common behavioral symptoms of dementia and can indicate unmet needs, discomfort, or confusion. Managing these symptoms promptly can help improve the client's quality of life and prevent complications such as falls, injuries, or escalation of challenging behaviors. While other issues like mild confusion, incontinence, and wandering are also important to address, managing restlessness and agitation takes precedence due to its immediate impact on the client's well-being and safety.

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