what is the priority intervention for sepsis
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2020

1. What is the priority intervention for sepsis?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In the management of sepsis, prompt intervention is crucial. Administering IV antibiotics is essential to target the underlying infection. Monitoring blood pressure helps assess the patient's hemodynamic status. Administering fluids is vital to maintain adequate perfusion. Therefore, all the options are integral components of the initial management of sepsis, making 'All of the above' the correct answer. Choosing any single intervention over the others may delay optimal care and compromise patient outcomes.

2. A nurse at a long-term care facility is part of a team preparing a report on the quality of care at the facility. Which of the following information should the nurse recommend including in the report to demonstrate improvement in care quality?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: '12% fewer urinary tract infections.' Tracking infections, such as UTIs, is crucial in assessing care quality improvements as the reduction in infections indicates better infection control practices and overall quality of care. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Increased admissions (Choice A) do not directly reflect improvements in care quality. Increased mortality rate (Choice C) is a negative outcome and demonstrates a decline in care quality. No changes in staffing (Choice D) do not provide direct evidence of care quality improvements.

3. What is an early sign indicating the need for suctioning a client's tracheostomy?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Irritability is a crucial early sign that a client with a tracheostomy may require suctioning. Irritability could indicate a lack of oxygenation due to the airway blockage, prompting the need for suctioning to clear the airway. Hypotension, flushing, and bradycardia are not typically direct indicators for suctioning a tracheostomy. Hypotension may suggest hemodynamic instability, flushing could be related to autonomic responses, and bradycardia might indicate a cardiac issue rather than the need for suctioning.

4. A nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client who has a new prescription for haloperidol. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse instruct the client to report to the provider?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Shuffling gait. A shuffling gait can indicate extrapyramidal symptoms, a potentially serious side effect of haloperidol. Extrapyramidal symptoms include movement disorders such as dystonia, akathisia, parkinsonism, and tardive dyskinesia. Reporting this symptom promptly is crucial to prevent further complications. Choices A, B, and C are common side effects of haloperidol but are not as urgent or indicative of serious complications compared to a shuffling gait.

5. How should a healthcare provider assess and manage a patient with hyperthyroidism?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering beta-blockers is the initial management for hyperthyroidism to control symptoms such as tachycardia and tremors. Monitoring for signs of thyroid storm is crucial as it is a life-threatening complication of hyperthyroidism. Encouraging a high-protein, low-iodine diet (choice B) is not the primary intervention for managing hyperthyroidism. Monitoring for signs of bradycardia (choice C) is not typically seen in hyperthyroidism, as it often presents with tachycardia. Providing iodine supplements and checking for arrhythmias (choice D) are contraindicated in hyperthyroidism as they can worsen the condition.

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