Nursing Elites

1. A client has developed phlebitis at the IV site. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Apply a warm compress to the IV site
• B. Discontinue the IV and notify the provider
• C. Monitor the IV site for signs of infection
• D. Administer an anti-inflammatory medication

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client develops phlebitis at the IV site, the priority action for the nurse is to discontinue the IV and notify the provider. Phlebitis is inflammation of the vein, and removing the IV can help prevent further complications. Applying a warm compress may provide symptomatic relief but does not address the root cause. Monitoring for infection is important, but immediate action to remove the source of inflammation is crucial. Administering an anti-inflammatory medication is not the first-line intervention for phlebitis; removal of the IV is necessary.

2. A nurse is assisting with the admission of a client who has major depressive disorder. Which of the following communication techniques should the nurse use to establish a trusting relationship with the client?

• A. Offer medical advice
• B. Offer general leads
• C. Ask open-ended questions
• D. Use assertive communication

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the context of establishing a trusting relationship with a client who has major depressive disorder, offering general leads is the most appropriate communication technique. General leads encourage clients to express themselves by providing subtle prompts or cues, which can help build rapport and trust. Offering medical advice (Choice A) is not suitable as it may come across as imposing and could hinder the establishment of trust. Asking open-ended questions (Choice C) is beneficial for eliciting detailed responses but may not be as effective at initially establishing trust as general leads. Using assertive communication (Choice D) can be perceived as aggressive and intimidating, which is not conducive to building a trusting relationship with a client who has major depressive disorder.

3. A client post-lumbar puncture should be in which position?

• A. High Fowler's position
• B. Prone position
• C. Supine position
• D. Sitting position

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most appropriate position for a client post-lumbar puncture is the supine position. Placing the client in a supine position helps prevent spinal headaches by allowing the puncture site to seal effectively and reducing the risk of cerebrospinal fluid leakage. High Fowler's position, prone position, and sitting position are not recommended after a lumbar puncture as they may increase the risk of complications like spinal headaches.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who is 1 hr postoperative following rhinoplasty. Which of the following manifestations requires immediate action by the nurse?

• A. Increase in frequency of swallowing.
• B. Moderate sanguineous drainage on the drip pad.
• C. Bruising to the face.
• D. Absent gag reflex.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increase in frequency of swallowing. After rhinoplasty, an increase in frequency of swallowing may indicate possible bleeding, which requires immediate action by the nurse. The client could be experiencing postoperative bleeding, and prompt intervention is necessary to prevent complications. Choice B, moderate sanguineous drainage on the drip pad, is expected in the immediate postoperative period and does not require immediate action unless it becomes excessive. Choice C, bruising to the face, is a common postoperative finding and does not require immediate action unless it is excessive or affects the airway. Choice D, absent gag reflex, would not be expected immediately following rhinoplasty and would require intervention, but the manifestation of increased swallowing frequency is a higher priority due to its association with potential bleeding.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Blood glucose level of 120 mg/dL
• B. White blood cell count of 8,000/mm³
• C. Temperature of 37.2°C (99°F)
• D. Daily weight increase of 0.45 kg (1 lb)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. A sudden weight increase may indicate fluid retention, a complication of TPN therapy that should be reported. Options A, B, and C are within normal ranges and do not directly relate to TPN therapy complications. A blood glucose level of 120 mg/dL is normal, a white blood cell count of 8,000/mm³ is within the normal range, and a temperature of 37.2°C (99°F) is also normal.

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