ATI LPN
ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2024
1. A client has developed phlebitis at the IV site. What should the nurse do first?
- A. Apply a warm compress to the IV site
- B. Discontinue the IV and notify the provider
- C. Monitor the IV site for signs of infection
- D. Administer an anti-inflammatory medication
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a client develops phlebitis at the IV site, the priority action for the nurse is to discontinue the IV and notify the provider. Phlebitis is inflammation of the vein, and removing the IV can help prevent further complications. Applying a warm compress may provide symptomatic relief but does not address the root cause. Monitoring for infection is important, but immediate action to remove the source of inflammation is crucial. Administering an anti-inflammatory medication is not the first-line intervention for phlebitis; removal of the IV is necessary.
2. A client is receiving phenytoin for management of grand mal seizures and has a new prescription for isoniazid and rifampin. Which of the following should the nurse conclude if the client develops ataxia and incoordination?
- A. The client is experiencing an adverse reaction to rifampin.
- B. The client's seizure disorder is no longer under control.
- C. The client is showing evidence of phenytoin toxicity.
- D. The client is having adverse effects due to combination antimicrobial therapy.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Ataxia and incoordination are signs of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse reactions to rifampin or isoniazid. These symptoms indicate that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of phenytoin, requiring a dose adjustment. Choice A is incorrect because rifampin is not typically associated with ataxia and incoordination. Choice B is incorrect as the development of ataxia and incoordination does not necessarily mean the seizure disorder is no longer under control. Choice D is incorrect as the symptoms are more indicative of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse effects of combination antimicrobial therapy.
3. A client who has a new prosthesis for an above-the-knee amputation of the right leg needs teaching on its use. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Wear the prosthesis for 2 hours at a time
- B. Remove the prosthesis every other day
- C. Apply the prosthesis immediately upon waking each day
- D. Elevate the stump for 24 hours after applying the prosthesis
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct instruction is to apply the prosthesis immediately upon waking each day. This helps the client adjust to and maintain mobility. Choice A is incorrect because wearing the prosthesis for only 2 hours at a time may not be sufficient for proper adjustment. Choice B is incorrect as removing the prosthesis every other day is not a standard practice and may hinder the client's mobility. Choice D is incorrect because elevating the stump for 24 hours after applying the prosthesis is unnecessary and not a recommended practice.
4. When caring for the client diagnosed with delirium, which condition is the most important for the nurse to investigate?
- A. Cancer of any type
- B. Impaired hearing
- C. Prescription drug intoxication
- D. Heart failure
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When caring for a client diagnosed with delirium, the most important condition for the nurse to investigate is prescription drug intoxication. Delirium in older adults is commonly caused by medication side effects or interactions. Investigating prescription drug intoxication is crucial as it can be a reversible cause of delirium. While cancer, impaired hearing, and heart failure are important considerations in overall care, prescription drug intoxication takes precedence in cases of delirium.
5. A nurse is caring for a client with a pressure ulcer and a serum albumin level of 3 g/dL. What should the nurse do first?
- A. Increase the client's protein intake
- B. Consult with a dietitian to improve the client's nutritional status
- C. Administer a protein supplement
- D. Monitor the client's fluid and electrolyte balance
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Consulting with a dietitian is the priority as it ensures that the client receives a comprehensive nutritional assessment and an individualized plan to address the low serum albumin level and pressure ulcer. Increasing protein intake (choice A) and administering a protein supplement (choice C) may be part of the dietitian's recommendations but should not be done without proper assessment and guidance. Monitoring fluid and electrolyte balance (choice D) is important but not the first step in addressing the client's nutritional needs.
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