Nursing Elites

1. A client has developed phlebitis at the IV site. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Apply a warm compress to the IV site
• B. Discontinue the IV and notify the provider
• C. Monitor the IV site for signs of infection
• D. Administer an anti-inflammatory medication

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client develops phlebitis at the IV site, the priority action for the nurse is to discontinue the IV and notify the provider. Phlebitis is inflammation of the vein, and removing the IV can help prevent further complications. Applying a warm compress may provide symptomatic relief but does not address the root cause. Monitoring for infection is important, but immediate action to remove the source of inflammation is crucial. Administering an anti-inflammatory medication is not the first-line intervention for phlebitis; removal of the IV is necessary.

2. A client is learning about preventing hip dislocation before total hip arthroplasty. Which instruction should be included?

• A. Avoid bending the hip more than 90 degrees
• B. Avoid lying on the unaffected side
• C. Avoid crossing the legs at the knees
• D. Avoid keeping the legs in a neutral position

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction to prevent hip dislocation after total hip arthroplasty is to avoid crossing the legs at the knees. This position can put stress on the hip joint and increase the risk of dislocation. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Bending the hip more than 90 degrees, lying on the unaffected side, or keeping the legs in a neutral position are not directly related to preventing hip dislocation in this context.

3. A nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client who has a new prescription for haloperidol. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse instruct the client to report to the provider?

• A. Weight gain.
• B. Dry mouth.
• C. Sedation.
• D. Shuffling gait.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Shuffling gait. A shuffling gait can indicate extrapyramidal symptoms, a potentially serious side effect of haloperidol. Extrapyramidal symptoms include movement disorders such as dystonia, akathisia, parkinsonism, and tardive dyskinesia. Reporting this symptom promptly is crucial to prevent further complications. Choices A, B, and C are common side effects of haloperidol but are not as urgent or indicative of serious complications compared to a shuffling gait.

4. During a home visit to an elderly client with mild dementia, the client's daughter reports that she has one major problem with her mother. She says, 'She sleeps most of the day and is up most of the night. I can't get a decent night's sleep anymore.' Which suggestions should the nurse make to the daughter?

• A. Ask the client's physician for a strong sleep medicine
• B. Establish a set routine for rising, hygiene, meals, short rest periods, and bedtime
• C. Engage the client in simple, brief exercises or a short walk when she gets drowsy during the day
• D. Promote relaxation before bedtime with a warm bath or relaxing music

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to establish a set routine for rising, hygiene, meals, short rest periods, and bedtime. By creating a structured daily schedule, the client's natural sleep-wake cycle can be regulated, helping to address the issue of daytime sleeping and nighttime wakefulness. Option A, asking for a strong sleep medicine, may not address the underlying cause and can have potential side effects in the elderly. Option C, engaging in exercises when drowsy, may not be suitable for someone with dementia and could disrupt sleep patterns further. Option D, promoting relaxation before bedtime, is helpful but may not be sufficient to address the client's significant sleep issue.

5. A nurse is providing teaching to an adolescent who has type 1 diabetes mellitus. Which of the following goals should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. HbA1c level greater than 8%.
• B. Blood glucose level greater than 200 mg/dL at bedtime.
• C. Blood glucose level less than 60 mg/dL before breakfast.
• D. HbA1c level less than 7%.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. An HbA1c level less than 7% indicates good long-term glucose control for clients with diabetes. This goal reflects optimal glycemic control and reduces the risk of long-term complications. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not represent appropriate goals for managing type 1 diabetes in an adolescent. An HbA1c level greater than 8% (choice A) signifies poor glucose control, while a blood glucose level greater than 200 mg/dL at bedtime (choice B) and a blood glucose level less than 60 mg/dL before breakfast (choice C) are not within the target ranges for safe and effective diabetes management.

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