a nurse is caring for a client who has developed phlebitis at the iv site what should the nurse do first
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2024

1. A client has developed phlebitis at the IV site. What should the nurse do first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client develops phlebitis at the IV site, the priority action for the nurse is to discontinue the IV and notify the provider. Phlebitis is inflammation of the vein, and removing the IV can help prevent further complications. Applying a warm compress may provide symptomatic relief but does not address the root cause. Monitoring for infection is important, but immediate action to remove the source of inflammation is crucial. Administering an anti-inflammatory medication is not the first-line intervention for phlebitis; removal of the IV is necessary.

2. A nurse is caring for a 37-year-old woman with metastatic ovarian cancer admitted for nausea and vomiting. The physician orders total parenteral nutrition (TPN), a nutritional consult, and diet recall. Which of the following is the BEST indication that the patient's nutritional status has improved after 4 days?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An improved albumin level is the best indicator of improved nutritional status after TPN. Albumin is a key protein that reflects the body's overall nutritional status and is commonly used to assess nutritional health. Choices A, B, and D are not as reliable indicators of improved nutritional status. Choice A may not accurately reflect nutritional improvement as it could be influenced by factors other than nutrition. Choice B may indicate fluid retention or loss rather than true nutritional improvement. Choice D, hemoglobin level, is more related to anemia and oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood, rather than nutritional status.

3. What should the nurse do first when a client with a tracheostomy exhibits respiratory distress?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct initial action when a client with a tracheostomy exhibits respiratory distress is to suction the tracheostomy. This helps to clear secretions and improve the client's ability to breathe. Notifying the provider (choice A) can cause a delay in immediate intervention. Administering a bronchodilator (choice C) may be necessary but is not the priority in this situation. Increasing the oxygen flow rate (choice D) can be helpful but should come after addressing the immediate need for suctioning to clear the airway.

4. A nurse is preparing to administer medications to a client who is NPO and is receiving enteral feedings through an NG tube. Which of the following prescriptions should the nurse clarify with the provider?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse should clarify prescription B, Acetaminophen 650 mg PO BID, with the provider. When a patient is NPO and receiving enteral feedings through an NG tube, medications administered orally may be contraindicated due to the risk of aspiration. Therefore, Acetaminophen should be confirmed for safety in this situation. The other options (Metoprolol ER 50 mg via NG tube BID, Lisinopril 10 mg PO daily, Ondansetron 4 mg IV push PRN) are appropriate and do not need clarification in this scenario.

5. Which dietary advice should a healthcare provider provide to a client with acute gout?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct dietary advice for a client with acute gout is to limit the intake of red meat and shellfish. These foods are high in purines, which can lead to increased uric acid levels in the body, exacerbating gout symptoms. Dairy products, fresh fruits, and vegetables are generally recommended for individuals with gout as they can help lower uric acid levels. Fruit juices and milk, in moderation, can also be part of a gout-friendly diet as they do not significantly contribute to uric acid buildup.

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