Nursing Elites

1. A client has developed phlebitis at the IV site. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Apply a warm compress to the IV site
• B. Discontinue the IV and notify the provider
• C. Monitor the IV site for signs of infection
• D. Administer an anti-inflammatory medication

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client develops phlebitis at the IV site, the priority action for the nurse is to discontinue the IV and notify the provider. Phlebitis is inflammation of the vein, and removing the IV can help prevent further complications. Applying a warm compress may provide symptomatic relief but does not address the root cause. Monitoring for infection is important, but immediate action to remove the source of inflammation is crucial. Administering an anti-inflammatory medication is not the first-line intervention for phlebitis; removal of the IV is necessary.

2. A home health nurse is caring for an older adult client who just returned home following a total knee arthroplasty. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

• A. Assess mobility
• B. Monitor vital signs
• C. Provide pain relief
• D. Reinforce discharge teaching

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Assessing mobility should be the nurse's priority as it ensures the client's safety and helps in developing an appropriate care plan. By evaluating the client's ability to move after the knee arthroplasty, the nurse can identify any immediate issues or complications that need to be addressed promptly. Monitoring vital signs, providing pain relief, and reinforcing discharge teaching are important aspects of care but assessing mobility takes precedence in ensuring the client's immediate well-being and identifying any potential risks.

3. Which intervention is essential when caring for a client with heart failure on fluid restriction?

• A. Encourage the client to drink water throughout the day
• B. Monitor the client's weight daily to assess fluid balance
• C. Limit fluid intake during meals
• D. Weigh the client once a week to assess fluid balance

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Monitor the client's weight daily to assess fluid balance.' When caring for a client with heart failure on fluid restriction, it is essential to monitor their weight daily to evaluate fluid balance accurately. This helps healthcare providers assess if the client is retaining excess fluid, a common issue in heart failure. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Encouraging the client to drink water throughout the day contradicts fluid restriction. Limiting fluid intake during meals may not provide a comprehensive assessment of fluid balance, and weighing the client once a week is not frequent enough to detect rapid changes in fluid status that could worsen heart failure symptoms.

4. What are the complications of diabetic ketoacidosis?

• A. Electrolyte imbalance and dehydration
• B. Hypoglycemia and increased urination
• C. Kidney failure and respiratory distress
• D. Liver failure and hypertension

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Electrolyte imbalance and dehydration. Diabetic ketoacidosis can lead to imbalances in electrolytes such as potassium, sodium, and chloride, as well as dehydration due to excess urination and vomiting. These complications should be managed promptly with appropriate fluids and insulin. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Hypoglycemia and increased urination are not typical complications of diabetic ketoacidosis; kidney failure and respiratory distress may occur in severe cases but are not the primary complications. Liver failure and hypertension are not directly associated with diabetic ketoacidosis.

5. The nurse is caring for a manic client in the seclusion room, and it is time for lunch. It is MOST appropriate for the nurse to take which of the following actions?

• A. Take the client to the dining room with 1:1 supervision
• B. Inform the client they may go to the dining room when they control their behavior
• C. Hold the meal until the client is able to come out of seclusion
• D. Serve the meal to the client in the seclusion room

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In the scenario described, the manic client is in the seclusion room, and it is most appropriate for the nurse to serve the meal to the client in the seclusion room. This action helps maintain the client's nutritional needs while managing their behavior. Taking the client to the dining room with 1:1 supervision (Choice A) may pose safety risks both for the client and others. Informing the client they may go to the dining room when they control their behavior (Choice B) may not be feasible in a manic state. Holding the meal until the client is able to come out of seclusion (Choice C) can lead to nutritional deficiencies and does not address the immediate need for nutrition during the episode of mania.

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