ATI LPN
ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Quizlet
1. What is the recommended intervention for a patient experiencing severe hypoglycemia?
- A. Administer glucagon
- B. Provide a source of glucose
- C. Monitor blood sugar
- D. Assess vital signs
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering glucagon is the recommended intervention for severe hypoglycemia, especially when the patient is unconscious or unable to consume oral glucose. Glucagon helps increase blood glucose levels rapidly by stimulating the release of stored glucose from the liver. Providing a source of glucose (Choice B) can be challenging if the patient is unable to swallow or unconscious, making glucagon a more effective option. Monitoring blood sugar levels (Choice C) and assessing vital signs (Choice D) are important aspects of managing hypoglycemia but are not the immediate intervention for severe cases where prompt elevation of blood glucose levels is necessary.
2. How should a healthcare professional assess and manage a patient with ascites?
- A. Monitor abdominal girth and administer diuretics
- B. Administer pain relief and monitor fluid intake
- C. Restrict fluid intake and encourage bed rest
- D. Administer albumin and check electrolyte levels
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Correct! When managing a patient with ascites, monitoring abdominal girth is crucial as it helps assess the extent of fluid retention. Administering diuretics is also essential to help reduce fluid buildup in the body, thereby managing ascites effectively. Option B is incorrect as pain relief is not the primary intervention for ascites. Option C is incorrect as restricting fluid intake can worsen the condition by causing dehydration and further fluid imbalances. Option D is incorrect as administering albumin and checking electrolyte levels are not first-line interventions for managing ascites; these interventions may be considered in specific cases but are not the initial steps in managing ascites.
3. A nurse is admitting a client who has anorexia nervosa. Which of the following is an expected finding?
- A. Iron 90 mcg/dl.
- B. Prealbumin 10 mcg/dl.
- C. Serum creatinine 0.8 mg/dl.
- D. Calcium 9.5 mg/dl.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Low prealbumin levels are indicative of malnutrition, which is common in individuals with anorexia nervosa. Iron levels, serum creatinine, and calcium levels are not typically affected in the same way by anorexia nervosa, making choices A, C, and D incorrect.
4. How should a healthcare professional assess a patient with fluid overload?
- A. Monitor weight and assess for edema
- B. Monitor blood pressure and auscultate lung sounds
- C. Assess for jugular venous distention
- D. Monitor oxygen saturation and check for fluid retention
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct way to assess a patient with fluid overload is by monitoring weight and assessing for edema. Weight monitoring helps in detecting fluid retention, and edema is a visible sign of excess fluid accumulation. Although monitoring blood pressure and auscultating lung sounds are important assessments in heart failure, they are not specific to fluid overload. Assessing for jugular venous distention is more indicative of right-sided heart failure rather than fluid overload. Monitoring oxygen saturation and checking for fluid retention are not primary assessments for fluid overload.
5. A nurse is preparing to administer medications to a client who is NPO and is receiving enteral feedings through an NG tube. Which of the following prescriptions should the nurse clarify with the provider?
- A. Metoprolol ER 50 mg via NG tube BID
- B. Acetaminophen 650 mg PO BID
- C. Lisinopril 10 mg PO daily
- D. Ondansetron 4 mg IV push PRN
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The nurse should clarify prescription B, Acetaminophen 650 mg PO BID, with the provider. When a patient is NPO and receiving enteral feedings through an NG tube, medications administered orally may be contraindicated due to the risk of aspiration. Therefore, Acetaminophen should be confirmed for safety in this situation. The other options (Metoprolol ER 50 mg via NG tube BID, Lisinopril 10 mg PO daily, Ondansetron 4 mg IV push PRN) are appropriate and do not need clarification in this scenario.
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