what are the early signs of a pulmonary embolism
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2024

1. What are the early signs of a pulmonary embolism?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Chest pain, shortness of breath, and tachycardia. These are classic early signs of a pulmonary embolism. Chest pain may be sudden and sharp, worsened by deep breathing or coughing. Shortness of breath can be sudden and severe. Tachycardia (rapid heart rate) is another common symptom. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not represent typical early signs of a pulmonary embolism.

2. A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client about cancer prevention. The nurse should include that frequent consumption of which of the following foods increases the risk for developing cancer?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Lamb. Lamb is high in saturated fat, which is linked to an increased risk of developing cancer. Choice B (Poultry) is a lean protein source and is not associated with an increased cancer risk. Choice C (Tuna) is a good source of omega-3 fatty acids, which have anti-inflammatory properties that may reduce cancer risk. Choice D (Beef) is also high in saturated fat like lamb, making it a poor choice for cancer prevention.

3. How should a healthcare provider respond to a patient experiencing acute chest pain?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the case of a patient experiencing acute chest pain, the initial response should include administering prescribed nitroglycerin. Nitroglycerin helps dilate blood vessels and improve blood flow to the heart, which can be beneficial in managing chest pain related to cardiac issues. Providing oxygen can also be helpful to support oxygenation. However, the priority in this scenario is to address the potential cardiac cause by administering nitroglycerin. Calling for emergency assistance is crucial if the patient's condition does not improve or deteriorates. Reassuring the patient is essential for emotional support but should not be the primary intervention in the case of acute chest pain.

4. A nurse is preparing to administer medications to a client who is NPO and is receiving enteral feedings through an NG tube. Which of the following prescriptions should the nurse clarify with the provider?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse should clarify prescription B, Acetaminophen 650 mg PO BID, with the provider. When a patient is NPO and receiving enteral feedings through an NG tube, medications administered orally may be contraindicated due to the risk of aspiration. Therefore, Acetaminophen should be confirmed for safety in this situation. The other options (Metoprolol ER 50 mg via NG tube BID, Lisinopril 10 mg PO daily, Ondansetron 4 mg IV push PRN) are appropriate and do not need clarification in this scenario.

5. A client is receiving phenytoin for management of grand mal seizures and has a new prescription for isoniazid and rifampin. Which of the following should the nurse conclude if the client develops ataxia and incoordination?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Ataxia and incoordination are signs of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse reactions to rifampin or isoniazid. These symptoms indicate that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of phenytoin, requiring a dose adjustment. Choice A is incorrect because rifampin is not typically associated with ataxia and incoordination. Choice B is incorrect as the development of ataxia and incoordination does not necessarily mean the seizure disorder is no longer under control. Choice D is incorrect as the symptoms are more indicative of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse effects of combination antimicrobial therapy.

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