ATI LPN
ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2020 Answers
1. What is the proper technique for obtaining a blood specimen from a central venous line?
- A. Use sterile gloves and discard the first 10 mL of blood
- B. Flush the line with heparin and then draw the specimen
- C. Draw the specimen and then administer heparin
- D. Use non-sterile gloves to reduce contamination risk
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct technique for obtaining a blood specimen from a central venous line is to use sterile gloves and discard the first 10 mL of blood. This practice helps ensure that the blood sample collected is not contaminated. Choice B is incorrect because flushing the line with heparin before drawing the specimen can contaminate the sample. Choice C is incorrect as administering heparin before drawing the specimen can affect the accuracy of the blood sample. Choice D is incorrect as using non-sterile gloves increases the risk of contamination, which is not recommended when obtaining a blood specimen from a central venous line.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who is scheduled for surgery in the morning. The nurse learns that the client has decided not to have surgery even though they have already signed the informed consent form. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Ignore the client's decision and proceed
- B. Report the situation to the provider
- C. Ask the family to convince the client
- D. Reassess the need for surgery with the client
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to report the client's decision to the provider who obtained informed consent. This ensures that the provider is informed of the client's change in decision and can discuss the situation further with the client. Choice A is incorrect as ignoring the client's decision is not appropriate and goes against the principles of patient autonomy. Choice C is incorrect because involving the family in convincing the client can be coercive and may not respect the client's autonomy. Choice D is incorrect because the nurse should not re-sign the informed consent form without the client's consent and a discussion with the provider.
3. What are the risk factors for developing pneumonia in older adults?
- A. Immobility and decreased lung function
- B. Poor hygiene and aspiration
- C. Use of respiratory equipment and medications
- D. Poor nutritional status and compromised immune system
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Immobility and decreased lung function. Older adults with immobility and decreased lung function are at a higher risk of developing pneumonia. Immobility can lead to decreased lung expansion and impaired clearance of secretions, predisposing to pneumonia. While poor hygiene, aspiration, use of respiratory equipment, medications, poor nutritional status, and compromised immune system can also contribute to pneumonia risk, they are not as directly associated with pneumonia in older adults as immobility and decreased lung function.
4. Which intervention should be included for a client with heart failure?
- A. Encourage increased fluid intake
- B. Weigh the client daily to monitor fluid balance
- C. Restrict fluid intake during meals
- D. Limit daily activity to prevent fatigue
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Weighing the client daily to monitor fluid balance is crucial for clients with heart failure. This intervention helps assess for fluid retention or depletion, providing valuable information for managing the condition effectively. Encouraging increased fluid intake (Choice A) is contraindicated in heart failure as it can worsen fluid overload. Restricting fluid intake during meals (Choice C) may lead to dehydration, which is harmful for clients with heart failure. Limiting daily activity (Choice D) is not recommended as appropriate activity levels should be encouraged for overall well-being, under guidance to prevent excessive fatigue.
5. How should a healthcare professional monitor a patient receiving IV potassium?
- A. Monitor ECG for dysrhythmias
- B. Monitor urine output
- C. Monitor serum potassium levels
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When a patient is receiving IV potassium, it is crucial to monitor various parameters to ensure patient safety. Monitoring the ECG helps in identifying any potential dysrhythmias that may occur due to potassium imbalances. Monitoring urine output is important as potassium levels can affect renal function. Monitoring serum potassium levels is essential to assess the effectiveness of the IV potassium therapy. Therefore, all the options - monitoring ECG for dysrhythmias, urine output, and serum potassium levels - are necessary when administering IV potassium, making 'All of the above' the correct answer. Choices A, B, and C are not individually sufficient as they each address different aspects of patient monitoring when receiving IV potassium.
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