ATI LPN
ATI Comprehensive Predictor PN
1. What is the primary intervention for sepsis?
- A. Administer IV antibiotics
- B. Monitor blood pressure
- C. Administer fluids
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The primary intervention for sepsis involves a multifaceted approach, including administering IV antibiotics to address the underlying infection and administering fluids to stabilize the patient's hemodynamic status. Monitoring blood pressure is important in the management of sepsis, but it is not the sole primary intervention. Therefore, the correct answer is 'All of the above' as it encompasses the comprehensive approach required for effective sepsis management.
2. When assessing a newborn for jaundice, which area should be examined?
- A. Legs and feet
- B. Chest and abdomen
- C. Face and sclera
- D. Back and buttocks
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When assessing a newborn for jaundice, the healthcare provider should examine the face and sclera. Jaundice is often first noticeable in these areas due to the buildup of bilirubin, causing a yellowish discoloration of the skin and eyes. Examining the legs and feet (Choice A) is not the most appropriate area for identifying jaundice in newborns. Similarly, the chest and abdomen (Choice B) are not the primary areas where jaundice is usually observed. Checking the back and buttocks (Choice D) is also not as useful as examining the face and sclera when assessing for jaundice in newborns.
3. A nurse is caring for a client who is 1 day postoperative and is unable to ambulate. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to promote the client's venous return?
- A. Encourage deep breathing exercises
- B. Maintain the client in a supine position
- C. Apply a sequential compression device
- D. Massage the client's legs
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Apply a sequential compression device. Applying a sequential compression device promotes venous return by assisting with blood circulation in the lower extremities, reducing the risk of blood clots. Encouraging deep breathing exercises can help with lung expansion but does not directly promote venous return. Maintaining the client in a supine position may not be ideal for promoting venous return if the client is unable to move. Massaging the client's legs may be contraindicated postoperatively due to the risk of dislodging a clot or causing trauma to the surgical site.
4. A nurse is monitoring a client who has been receiving intermittent enteral feedings. What should the nurse identify as an intolerance to the feeding?
- A. Increased appetite
- B. Nausea
- C. Weight gain
- D. Regular bowel movements
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Nausea is a common sign of intolerance to enteral feedings. When a client experiences nausea, it can indicate difficulty in tolerating the feeding formula. This intolerance may also manifest as vomiting and dumping syndrome. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because increased appetite, weight gain, and regular bowel movements are not typical signs of intolerance to enteral feedings.
5. A client with atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). The nurse should monitor which laboratory test to determine the effectiveness of the therapy?
- A. Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR)
- B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
- C. Complete blood count (CBC)
- D. Fibrinogen level
Correct answer: A
Rationale: To monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy in a client with atrial fibrillation, the nurse should assess the Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) levels. These tests help determine the clotting ability of the blood and ensure that the client's anticoagulation levels are within the therapeutic range, reducing the risk of bleeding or clotting complications. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) (Choice B) is more commonly used to monitor heparin therapy. Complete blood count (CBC) (Choice C) provides information about the cellular components of blood but does not directly assess the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. Fibrinogen level (Choice D) is not typically used to monitor warfarin therapy; it reflects the level of fibrinogen in the blood, which is involved in the clotting process.
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