Nursing Elites

1. What is the nurse's priority when caring for a client with a tracheostomy who is showing signs of respiratory distress?

• A. Administer a bronchodilator
• B. Suction the tracheostomy
• C. Notify the physician immediately
• D. Increase the oxygen flow rate

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to suction the tracheostomy. When a client with a tracheostomy is experiencing respiratory distress, the priority intervention is to clear the airway by suctioning the tracheostomy to remove secretions that may be obstructing the air passage. Administering a bronchodilator (Choice A) may be considered if bronchospasm is present, but the immediate focus should be on clearing the airway. Notifying the physician (Choice C) is important but should not delay the immediate intervention of suctioning. Increasing the oxygen flow rate (Choice D) may provide temporary relief, but addressing the root cause of the distress by suctioning is the priority.

2. What is the nurse's responsibility when caring for a client with a chest tube?

• A. Check for air leaks in the tubing every 4 hours
• B. Clamp the chest tube for 30 minutes every 4 hours
• C. Encourage deep breathing and coughing every 2 hours
• D. Keep the client in a high Fowler's position

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to check for air leaks in the tubing every 4 hours when caring for a client with a chest tube. This responsibility is crucial because it ensures proper chest tube function and helps prevent complications such as pneumothorax or hemothorax. Clamping the chest tube (Choice B) can lead to serious issues by causing a tension pneumothorax. Encouraging deep breathing and coughing (Choice C) is important for respiratory hygiene but is not directly related to chest tube care. Keeping the client in a high Fowler's position (Choice D) may be beneficial for some conditions but is not specific to chest tube management.

3. A healthcare provider is caring for a client with a pressure ulcer and needs to review the client's medical history. Which of the following findings is expected?

• A. A Braden scale score of 20
• B. An albumin level of 3 g/dL
• C. A hemoglobin level of 13 g/dL
• D. A Norton scale score of 18

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A serum albumin level of 3 g/dL is indicative of poor nutrition, a common factor in the development of pressure ulcers. The Braden scale assesses the risk of developing pressure ulcers but does not reflect the client's medical history. Hemoglobin level is more related to oxygen-carrying capacity rather than pressure ulcer development. The Norton scale evaluates risk for developing pressure ulcers but is not typically part of a client's medical history.

4. Which dietary advice should a healthcare provider provide to a client with acute gout?

• A. Increase intake of dairy products
• B. Limit intake of red meat and shellfish
• C. Limit intake of fresh fruits and vegetables
• D. Limit intake of fruit juices and milk

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct dietary advice for a client with acute gout is to limit the intake of red meat and shellfish. These foods are high in purines, which can lead to increased uric acid levels in the body, exacerbating gout symptoms. Dairy products, fresh fruits, and vegetables are generally recommended for individuals with gout as they can help lower uric acid levels. Fruit juices and milk, in moderation, can also be part of a gout-friendly diet as they do not significantly contribute to uric acid buildup.

5. Which dietary advice is most appropriate for a client with chronic kidney disease?

• A. Increase intake of fruits and vegetables
• B. Limit intake of potassium-rich foods
• C. Increase intake of dairy products
• D. Reduce intake of protein-rich foods

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most appropriate dietary advice for a client with chronic kidney disease is to limit intake of potassium-rich foods. In chronic kidney disease, the kidneys have difficulty filtering potassium from the blood, leading to high levels that can be harmful. Therefore, reducing potassium intake is crucial to prevent complications. Choices A, C, and D are not the best options for individuals with chronic kidney disease. Increasing intake of fruits and vegetables (choice A) may actually increase potassium consumption. Increasing intake of dairy products (choice C) can lead to higher phosphorus and potassium levels. Reducing protein-rich foods (choice D) is not the primary focus in the early stages of chronic kidney disease, as protein is necessary for overall health unless kidney function declines significantly.

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