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ATI Mental Health Practice A
1. Which therapeutic approach is most effective for a patient with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD)?
- A. Psychoanalytic therapy
- B. Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT)
- C. Humanistic therapy
- D. Gestalt therapy
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) is the most effective therapeutic approach for generalized anxiety disorder (GAD). CBT helps individuals identify and modify negative thought patterns and behaviors that contribute to anxiety. It focuses on changing cognitive distortions and maladaptive behaviors, providing practical strategies to manage anxiety symptoms effectively. Numerous studies have shown the effectiveness of CBT in treating GAD by helping patients develop coping mechanisms and skills to address their anxiety. Choice A, Psychoanalytic therapy, is not the most effective for GAD as it primarily focuses on exploring unconscious conflicts and childhood experiences rather than providing immediate coping strategies. Choice C, Humanistic therapy, emphasizes personal growth and self-improvement, which may not directly target the specific symptoms of GAD. Choice D, Gestalt therapy, focuses on increasing self-awareness and personal responsibility, which might not address the cognitive distortions and behavioral patterns associated with GAD as directly as CBT does.
2. A patient with bipolar disorder is experiencing a depressive episode. Which intervention is most appropriate?
- A. Encouraging the patient to participate in physical activities.
- B. Providing a stimulating environment to keep the patient engaged.
- C. Allowing the patient to isolate until they feel better.
- D. Encouraging the patient to express their feelings and concerns.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: During a depressive episode in bipolar disorder, it is essential to encourage patients to express their feelings and concerns. This intervention helps them feel heard, supported, and can aid in managing their emotions effectively.
3. A client has a new prescription for disulfiram for the treatment of alcohol use disorder. The nurse informs the client that this medication can cause nausea and vomiting when alcohol is consumed. Which of the following types of treatment is this method an example of?
- A. Aversion therapy
- B. Flooding
- C. Biofeedback
- D. Dialectical behavior therapy
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Aversion therapy is a form of behavioral therapy that aims to create a negative response to a stimulus, in this case, alcohol consumption. Disulfiram is used in aversion therapy to induce unpleasant effects when alcohol is consumed, such as nausea and vomiting, to deter the individual from drinking. Therefore, the use of disulfiram in this context exemplifies aversion therapy. Flooding involves exposing an individual to a feared object or situation to overcome anxiety; biofeedback teaches self-regulation techniques, and dialectical behavior therapy is a type of cognitive-behavioral therapy focusing on acceptance and change strategies, which are not directly related to the use of disulfiram for alcohol use disorder.
4. When developing a care plan for a patient with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD), which long-term goal is most appropriate?
- A. The patient will experience no episodes of anxiety.
- B. The patient will recognize and modify anxiety-provoking thoughts.
- C. The patient will avoid situations that cause anxiety.
- D. The patient will take medication as prescribed.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The most appropriate long-term goal for managing generalized anxiety disorder is for the patient to recognize and modify anxiety-provoking thoughts. By addressing and modifying these thoughts, the patient can develop coping mechanisms and strategies to manage their anxiety more effectively in the long term. Choices A and C are not ideal long-term goals as complete elimination of anxiety episodes or avoidance of anxiety-provoking situations may not be realistic or sustainable. Choice D focuses solely on medication adherence, which is important but does not address the core cognitive-behavioral aspects of managing anxiety in GAD.
5. A 33-year-old female diagnosed with bipolar I disorder has been functioning well on lithium for 11 months. At her most recent checkup, the psychiatric nurse practitioner states, ‘You are ready to enter the maintenance therapy stage, so at this time I am going to adjust your dosage by prescribing:'
- A. A higher dosage
- B. Once-a-week dosing
- C. A lower dosage
- D. A different drug
Correct answer: C
Rationale: As the patient transitions to maintenance therapy, the typical approach involves decreasing the dosage to a lower level. This adjustment is made to find the minimum effective dose needed for symptom control while reducing the potential side effects associated with long-term use. Choosing a higher dosage (A) would not align with the goal of maintenance therapy, as it may increase the risk of adverse effects. Once-a-week dosing (B) is not a common adjustment for lithium, which is usually prescribed daily for bipolar disorder. Switching to a different drug (D) is typically considered if the current medication is ineffective or intolerable, not as a routine step in transitioning to maintenance therapy.
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