Nursing Elites

1. What is the most appropriate action for a healthcare provider to take when a patient is experiencing a seizure?

• A. Protect the patient's head
• B. Restrain the patient's movements
• C. Insert an airway
• D. Give the patient water

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During a seizure, the most appropriate action for a healthcare provider is to protect the patient's head. This helps prevent injury, especially considering the involuntary movements and potential thrashing associated with seizures. Restraint should be avoided as it can lead to further injury or distress for the patient. Inserting an airway is not recommended during an active seizure as the patient's airway may not be obstructed, and it could pose a risk of injury. Giving the patient water during a seizure is also not advisable as there is a risk of aspiration. Therefore, the priority is to ensure the patient's safety by protecting their head.

2. A nurse on a med surge unit has received change of shift report and will care for 4 clients. Which of the following clients' needs will the nurse assign to an AP?

• A. Feeding a client who was admitted 24 hours ago with aspiration pneumonia
• B. Reinforcing teaching with a client who is learning to walk with a quad cane
• C. Reapplying a condom catheter for a client who has urinary incontinence
• D. Applying a sterile dressing to a pressure ulcer

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because reapplying a condom catheter for a client with urinary incontinence is a task that can be safely assigned to an assistive personnel (AP) as it falls within their scope of practice. Choice A involves the assessment of a client with aspiration pneumonia, which requires nursing judgment. Choice B requires teaching and guidance, which is the responsibility of the nurse. Choice D involves applying a sterile dressing, which requires nursing skills and knowledge.

3. What are key signs of fluid overload?

• A. Edema
• B. Hypertension
• C. Shortness of breath
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'D: All of the above.' Edema, hypertension, and shortness of breath are key signs of fluid overload, particularly common in patients with heart failure. Edema refers to the swelling caused by excess fluid trapped in the body's tissues, hypertension can be a result of fluid volume overload, and shortness of breath can occur due to fluid accumulation in the lungs. Therefore, all these signs collectively indicate fluid overload in a patient. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect individually as each alone may not necessarily indicate fluid overload, but when seen together, they strongly suggest fluid volume excess in the body.

4. How do you assess for dehydration in a pediatric patient?

• A. Check for dry mouth and decreased urine output
• B. Monitor skin turgor and capillary refill
• C. Assess for lethargy and irritability
• D. Monitor blood pressure and heart rate

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct! When assessing for dehydration in a pediatric patient, checking for dry mouth and decreased urine output are crucial indicators. Dry mouth indicates reduced fluid intake or dehydration, while decreased urine output suggests decreased renal perfusion secondary to dehydration. Skin turgor and capillary refill are more indicative of perfusion status rather than dehydration specifically. Lethargy and irritability can be present in dehydrated patients but are more general signs of illness. Monitoring blood pressure and heart rate are important in assessing dehydration severity but are not the initial signs used for assessment.

5. A client is receiving phenytoin for management of grand mal seizures and has a new prescription for isoniazid and rifampin. Which of the following should the nurse conclude if the client develops ataxia and incoordination?

• A. The client is experiencing an adverse reaction to rifampin.
• B. The client's seizure disorder is no longer under control.
• C. The client is showing evidence of phenytoin toxicity.
• D. The client is having adverse effects due to combination antimicrobial therapy.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Ataxia and incoordination are signs of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse reactions to rifampin or isoniazid. These symptoms indicate that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of phenytoin, requiring a dose adjustment. Choice A is incorrect because rifampin is not typically associated with ataxia and incoordination. Choice B is incorrect as the development of ataxia and incoordination does not necessarily mean the seizure disorder is no longer under control. Choice D is incorrect as the symptoms are more indicative of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse effects of combination antimicrobial therapy.

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