Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is assisting with the admission of a client who has major depressive disorder. Which of the following communication techniques should the nurse use to establish a trusting relationship with the client?

• A. Offer medical advice
• B. Offer general leads
• C. Ask open-ended questions
• D. Use assertive communication

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the context of establishing a trusting relationship with a client who has major depressive disorder, offering general leads is the most appropriate communication technique. General leads encourage clients to express themselves by providing subtle prompts or cues, which can help build rapport and trust. Offering medical advice (Choice A) is not suitable as it may come across as imposing and could hinder the establishment of trust. Asking open-ended questions (Choice C) is beneficial for eliciting detailed responses but may not be as effective at initially establishing trust as general leads. Using assertive communication (Choice D) can be perceived as aggressive and intimidating, which is not conducive to building a trusting relationship with a client who has major depressive disorder.

2. A nurse is collecting data from a client who has bipolar disorder and is experiencing acute mania. Which of the following findings is the nurse's priority?

• A. Pressured speech
• B. Increased appetite
• C. Lack of sleep
• D. Mood swings

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Lack of sleep.' In a client experiencing acute mania due to bipolar disorder, lack of sleep is the priority finding for the nurse to address. Sleep deprivation can exacerbate symptoms, lead to exhaustion, and increase the risk of further complications. Pressured speech, increased appetite, and mood swings are also common in acute mania, but addressing the lack of sleep takes precedence due to its significant impact on the client's well-being and recovery.

3. A nurse is contributing to an in-service for newly-licensed nurses about child maltreatment. The nurse should include that which of the following characteristics increases a child's risk of physical maltreatment?

• A. Low birth weight
• B. Advanced maternal age
• C. Single parenthood
• D. Premature birth

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Low birth weight increases a child's vulnerability to physical maltreatment due to additional care needs. Advanced maternal age (choice B) is not directly linked to an increased risk of physical maltreatment. Single parenthood (choice C) is not a characteristic that inherently increases the risk of physical maltreatment. Premature birth (choice D) is not listed as a characteristic that directly increases a child's risk of physical maltreatment.

4. A nurse is preparing to perform a sterile dressing change. Which of the following actions should the nurse take when setting up the sterile field?

• A. Place the cap from the solution sterile side up on a clean surface.
• B. Open the outermost flap of the sterile kit away from the body.
• C. Place the sterile dressing within 1.25 cm (0.5 in) of the edge of the sterile field.
• D. Set up the sterile field 5 cm (2 in) above waist level.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To maintain the sterility of the field, the nurse should place the cap from the solution sterile side up on a clean surface. This action helps prevent contamination. Choice B is incorrect because opening the outermost flap toward the body increases the risk of introducing contaminants onto the sterile field. Choice C is incorrect as the sterile dressing should be placed at least 2.5 cm (1 in) from the edge of the sterile field to prevent accidental contamination. Choice D is incorrect because setting up the sterile field above waist level could lead to inadvertent contact and compromise the field's sterility.

5. A client is receiving phenytoin for management of grand mal seizures and has a new prescription for isoniazid and rifampin. Which of the following should the nurse conclude if the client develops ataxia and incoordination?

• A. The client is experiencing an adverse reaction to rifampin.
• B. The client's seizure disorder is no longer under control.
• C. The client is showing evidence of phenytoin toxicity.
• D. The client is having adverse effects due to combination antimicrobial therapy.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Ataxia and incoordination are signs of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse reactions to rifampin or isoniazid. These symptoms indicate that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of phenytoin, requiring a dose adjustment. Choice A is incorrect because rifampin is not typically associated with ataxia and incoordination. Choice B is incorrect as the development of ataxia and incoordination does not necessarily mean the seizure disorder is no longer under control. Choice D is incorrect as the symptoms are more indicative of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse effects of combination antimicrobial therapy.

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