Nursing Elites

1. What is the main symptom of left-sided heart failure?

• A. Shortness of breath
• B. Edema
• C. Increased heart rate
• D. Decreased urine output

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Shortness of breath is the main symptom of left-sided heart failure because it results from pulmonary congestion due to fluid buildup in the lungs. Edema, increased heart rate, and decreased urine output are associated with right-sided heart failure rather than left-sided heart failure.

2. What is the priority intervention for sepsis?

• A. Administer IV antibiotics
• B. Monitor blood pressure
• C. Administer fluids
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In the management of sepsis, prompt intervention is crucial. Administering IV antibiotics is essential to target the underlying infection. Monitoring blood pressure helps assess the patient's hemodynamic status. Administering fluids is vital to maintain adequate perfusion. Therefore, all the options are integral components of the initial management of sepsis, making 'All of the above' the correct answer. Choosing any single intervention over the others may delay optimal care and compromise patient outcomes.

3. A nurse is reinforcing home safety instructions with the parent of a newborn. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the instructions?

• A. Place your baby's crib away from heat vents
• B. Place the crib close to a heater
• C. Place the crib near a window
• D. Place soft toys in the crib

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Place your baby's crib away from heat vents.' Placing the crib away from heat vents is essential to prevent the baby from becoming overheated and to reduce the risk of Sudden Infant Death Syndrome (SIDS). Choice B is incorrect because placing the crib close to a heater increases the risk of overheating and poses a fire hazard. Choice C is incorrect as placing the crib near a window exposes the baby to drafts and temperature fluctuations. Choice D is incorrect as soft toys in the crib can pose a suffocation risk to the newborn.

4. A healthcare provider is caring for a client with a pressure ulcer and needs to review the client's medical history. Which of the following findings is expected?

• A. A Braden scale score of 20
• B. An albumin level of 3 g/dL
• C. A hemoglobin level of 13 g/dL
• D. A Norton scale score of 18

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A serum albumin level of 3 g/dL is indicative of poor nutrition, a common factor in the development of pressure ulcers. The Braden scale assesses the risk of developing pressure ulcers but does not reflect the client's medical history. Hemoglobin level is more related to oxygen-carrying capacity rather than pressure ulcer development. The Norton scale evaluates risk for developing pressure ulcers but is not typically part of a client's medical history.

5. What are the signs of an acute myocardial infarction?

• A. Chest pain radiating to the arm and shortness of breath
• B. Nausea, vomiting, and high fever
• C. Headache, confusion, and low blood pressure
• D. Increased heart rate and bradycardia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Chest pain radiating to the arm and shortness of breath. These are classic signs of an acute myocardial infarction. Choice B is incorrect because nausea, vomiting, and high fever are not typical signs of a heart attack. Choice C is incorrect as headache, confusion, and low blood pressure are not specific to myocardial infarction. Choice D is incorrect because an acute myocardial infarction typically presents with an increased heart rate, not bradycardia.

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