ATI LPN
ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 with NGN
1. What is the main symptom of left-sided heart failure?
- A. Shortness of breath
- B. Edema
- C. Increased heart rate
- D. Decreased urine output
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Shortness of breath is the main symptom of left-sided heart failure because it results from pulmonary congestion due to fluid buildup in the lungs. Edema, increased heart rate, and decreased urine output are associated with right-sided heart failure rather than left-sided heart failure.
2. A patient took an overdose of acetaminophen. Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to administer to the patient?
- A. Naloxone
- B. Acetylcysteine
- C. Flumazenil
- D. Activated charcoal
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Acetylcysteine is the antidote for acetaminophen overdose. It works by replenishing glutathione, a key component in detoxifying acetaminophen metabolites, thus preventing liver damage. Naloxone is used to reverse opioid overdose, not acetaminophen. Flumazenil is a benzodiazepine antidote. Activated charcoal is used to limit absorption in cases of poisoning, but it is not the antidote for acetaminophen overdose.
3. A nurse is planning discharge teaching about cord care for the parents of a newborn. Which of the following instructions should the nurse plan to include in the teaching?
- A. Clean the base of the cord with hydrogen peroxide daily.
- B. The cord stump will fall off in 5 days.
- C. Contact the provider if the cord stump turns black.
- D. Keep the cord stump dry until it falls off.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to keep the cord stump dry until it falls off. This is important to promote natural healing and prevent infection. Choice A is incorrect because cleaning the cord with hydrogen peroxide daily can actually delay healing and increase the risk of infection. Choice B is incorrect as the cord stump typically falls off within 1 to 3 weeks, not in 5 days. Choice C is incorrect because a cord stump turning black is a normal part of the healing process and does not necessarily indicate a problem requiring immediate provider contact.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who is 2 hours postoperative following an appendectomy. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Urine output of 20 mL/hr.
- B. Temperature of 36.5°C (97.7°F).
- C. Sanguineous drainage on the surgical dressing.
- D. WBC count of 9,000/mm3.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Urine output of 20 mL/hr. A urine output less than 30 mL/hr can indicate decreased renal perfusion, potentially due to hypovolemia or other issues, and should be reported to the provider. B: A temperature of 36.5°C (97.7°F) falls within the normal range and does not require immediate reporting. C: Sanguineous drainage on the surgical dressing is expected in the early postoperative period and should be monitored but does not need immediate reporting unless excessive. D: A WBC count of 9,000/mm3 is within the normal range and does not indicate an immediate concern.
5. A healthcare professional is collecting data from a client who has hypokalemia. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional expect?
- A. Muscle stiffness
- B. Bradycardia
- C. Hyperreflexia
- D. Muscle weakness
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Muscle weakness.' Hypokalemia is characterized by low potassium levels, which can lead to muscle weakness due to impaired muscle function. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect findings associated with other medical conditions and not typically expected in hypokalemia. Muscle stiffness is more commonly associated with conditions like tetany or muscle cramps, bradycardia is more commonly associated with issues like heart block or hypothyroidism, and hyperreflexia is more commonly seen in conditions like hyperthyroidism or spinal cord injuries.
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