what are the primary differences between type 1 and type 2 diabetes in terms of pathophysiology and treatment
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ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Quizlet

1. What are the primary differences between Type 1 and Type 2 diabetes in terms of pathophysiology and treatment?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Type 1 diabetes is characterized by the absence of insulin production, while Type 2 diabetes involves insulin resistance. Choice B is incorrect because Type 1 diabetes is not related to insulin resistance. Choice C is inaccurate as Type 1 diabetes is autoimmune while Type 2 diabetes is more associated with lifestyle factors. Choice D is not correct since insulin therapy is primarily used in Type 1 diabetes, whereas diet modification is a common approach in managing Type 2 diabetes.

2. What are the early signs and symptoms of sepsis?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased heart rate and fever. In sepsis, an increased heart rate and fever are common early signs of systemic infection. While choices B, C, and D can be present in later stages of sepsis, they are not typically the initial signs. Low blood pressure and confusion may occur in severe sepsis or septic shock. Rapid breathing and sweating can be seen as sepsis progresses. Abdominal pain and cyanosis may develop as the condition advances but are not usually the earliest signs.

3. A nurse is maintaining droplet precautions for a client who has meningitis. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when maintaining droplet precautions for a client with meningitis is to wear a surgical mask within 3 feet of the client. This is essential to prevent the transmission of meningitis via respiratory droplets. Choice A is incorrect because wearing a gown is not specifically required for droplet precautions. Choice B suggests maintaining a distance of 6 feet, which is more applicable to airborne precautions, not droplet precautions. Choice D is incorrect as gloves should be removed and disposed of properly, but it is not related to droplet precautions specifically.

4. Which of the following findings should the nurse anticipate in the medical record of a client with a pressure ulcer?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Serum albumin level of 3 g/dL. A serum albumin level of 3 g/dL indicates poor nutrition, which is commonly seen in clients with pressure ulcers. Choice B, a Braden scale score of 20, is incorrect because a higher Braden scale score indicates a lower risk of developing pressure ulcers. Choice C, a Norton scale score of 18, is incorrect as it is a tool used to assess the risk of developing pressure ulcers, not a finding in a client with an existing pressure ulcer. Choice D, a hemoglobin level of 13 g/dL, is unrelated to pressure ulcers and does not directly reflect the nutritional status associated with this condition.

5. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client with dementia. Which of the following findings should the nurse address first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In clients with dementia, restlessness and agitation are important symptoms that the nurse should address first. These symptoms can indicate underlying issues such as pain, discomfort, or unmet needs, and addressing them promptly can prevent complications. Psychosocial stressors may contribute to the client's condition but should not be the initial priority. Frequent wandering at night and urinary incontinence are also common in dementia but do not pose immediate risks compared to restlessness and agitation.

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