ATI LPN
ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Quizlet
1. What are the primary differences between Type 1 and Type 2 diabetes in terms of pathophysiology and treatment?
- A. Type 1: No insulin production; Type 2: Insulin resistance
- B. Type 1: Insulin resistance; Type 2: Insulin deficiency
- C. Type 1: Autoimmune; Type 2: Lifestyle-related
- D. Type 1: Insulin therapy; Type 2: Diet modification
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Type 1 diabetes is characterized by the absence of insulin production, while Type 2 diabetes involves insulin resistance. Choice B is incorrect because Type 1 diabetes is not related to insulin resistance. Choice C is inaccurate as Type 1 diabetes is autoimmune while Type 2 diabetes is more associated with lifestyle factors. Choice D is not correct since insulin therapy is primarily used in Type 1 diabetes, whereas diet modification is a common approach in managing Type 2 diabetes.
2. A client is receiving phenytoin for management of grand mal seizures and has a new prescription for isoniazid and rifampin. Which of the following should the nurse conclude if the client develops ataxia and incoordination?
- A. The client is experiencing an adverse reaction to rifampin.
- B. The client's seizure disorder is no longer under control.
- C. The client is showing evidence of phenytoin toxicity.
- D. The client is having adverse effects due to combination antimicrobial therapy.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Ataxia and incoordination are signs of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse reactions to rifampin or isoniazid. These symptoms indicate that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of phenytoin, requiring a dose adjustment. Choice A is incorrect because rifampin is not typically associated with ataxia and incoordination. Choice B is incorrect as the development of ataxia and incoordination does not necessarily mean the seizure disorder is no longer under control. Choice D is incorrect as the symptoms are more indicative of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse effects of combination antimicrobial therapy.
3. A client has a history of oliguria, hypertension, and peripheral edema. Current lab values are: BUN - 25, K+ - 4.0 mEq/L. Which nutrient should be restricted in the client's diet?
- A. Protein
- B. Fats
- C. Carbohydrates
- D. Magnesium
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In clients with oliguria, hypertension, and peripheral edema, protein should be restricted in the diet to reduce the workload on the kidneys. Excessive protein intake can lead to increased BUN levels, which can further stress the kidneys. Restricting protein can help prevent further kidney damage. Fats, carbohydrates, and magnesium do not directly impact kidney function in the same way as protein does, making them incorrect choices in this scenario.
4. A healthcare professional is collecting data from a client who is experiencing post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD). Which of the following manifestations should the healthcare professional expect?
- A. Hyperactivity
- B. Hypervigilance
- C. Restlessness
- D. Avoidance of social situations
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Hypervigilance is a common manifestation of PTSD characterized by heightened alertness and fear of danger. This heightened state of awareness can lead to irritability, difficulty concentrating, and sleep disturbances. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Hyperactivity is not typically associated with PTSD; restlessness may be present but is not the primary manifestation, and avoidance of social situations is more commonly seen in conditions like social anxiety disorder rather than PTSD.
5. How should a healthcare professional assess and manage a patient with dehydration?
- A. Assess skin turgor and monitor intake/output
- B. Encourage oral fluids only
- C. Administer IV fluids immediately
- D. Check for electrolyte imbalance and administer fluids
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct way to assess and manage a patient with dehydration is to assess skin turgor and monitor intake/output. Skin turgor assessment helps in evaluating the degree of dehydration, while monitoring intake/output aids in maintaining fluid balance. Encouraging oral fluids only (Choice B) may not be sufficient for moderate to severe dehydration as patients may need intravenous fluids (IV) to rapidly rehydrate. Administering IV fluids immediately (Choice C) is not always the first step unless the patient is severely dehydrated. Checking for electrolyte imbalance and administering fluids (Choice D) is important but comes after assessing skin turgor and intake/output in the management of dehydration.
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