what are the primary differences between type 1 and type 2 diabetes in terms of pathophysiology and treatment
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ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Quizlet

1. What are the primary differences between Type 1 and Type 2 diabetes in terms of pathophysiology and treatment?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Type 1 diabetes is characterized by the absence of insulin production, while Type 2 diabetes involves insulin resistance. Choice B is incorrect because Type 1 diabetes is not related to insulin resistance. Choice C is inaccurate as Type 1 diabetes is autoimmune while Type 2 diabetes is more associated with lifestyle factors. Choice D is not correct since insulin therapy is primarily used in Type 1 diabetes, whereas diet modification is a common approach in managing Type 2 diabetes.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has diabetes mellitus and is receiving insulin. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A blood glucose level of 200 mg/dL indicates hyperglycemia, which may necessitate insulin adjustment to better control the client's blood sugar levels. A fasting blood glucose of 90 mg/dL (choice A) is within the normal range, a hemoglobin A1c of 6% (choice C) is indicative of good long-term blood sugar control, and a fasting blood glucose of 100 mg/dL (choice D) is also within the normal range. Therefore, these findings do not require immediate reporting to the provider.

3. What are the key differences between systolic and diastolic heart failure?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Systolic heart failure is characterized by reduced ejection fraction, meaning the heart is not pumping effectively. Diastolic heart failure, on the other hand, is characterized by preserved ejection fraction, indicating that the heart has difficulty relaxing and filling properly. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately describe the key differences between systolic and diastolic heart failure.

4. A client has developed phlebitis at the IV site. What should the nurse do first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client develops phlebitis at the IV site, the priority action for the nurse is to discontinue the IV and notify the provider. Phlebitis is inflammation of the vein, and removing the IV can help prevent further complications. Applying a warm compress may provide symptomatic relief but does not address the root cause. Monitoring for infection is important, but immediate action to remove the source of inflammation is crucial. Administering an anti-inflammatory medication is not the first-line intervention for phlebitis; removal of the IV is necessary.

5. A nurse in a long-term care facility is auscultating the lung sounds of a client who reports shortness of breath and increased fatigue. The nurse should report which of the following to the provider after hearing this sound?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Fine crackles. Fine crackles suggest fluid in the lungs, which could indicate a serious respiratory issue like pulmonary edema. This sound should be reported to the provider for further evaluation and possible intervention. Rhonchi (choice B) are low-pitched wheezing sounds often caused by secretions in the larger airways, wheezing (choice C) is a high-pitched whistling sound usually caused by narrowed airways, and stridor (choice D) is a high-pitched sound heard on inspiration that indicates upper airway obstruction. While these sounds also require attention, fine crackles are more indicative of fluid accumulation in the lungs, making them the priority for reporting in this scenario.

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