Nursing Elites

1. What are the primary differences between Type 1 and Type 2 diabetes in terms of pathophysiology and treatment?

• A. Type 1: No insulin production; Type 2: Insulin resistance
• B. Type 1: Insulin resistance; Type 2: Insulin deficiency
• C. Type 1: Autoimmune; Type 2: Lifestyle-related
• D. Type 1: Insulin therapy; Type 2: Diet modification

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Type 1 diabetes is characterized by the absence of insulin production, while Type 2 diabetes involves insulin resistance. Choice B is incorrect because Type 1 diabetes is not related to insulin resistance. Choice C is inaccurate as Type 1 diabetes is autoimmune while Type 2 diabetes is more associated with lifestyle factors. Choice D is not correct since insulin therapy is primarily used in Type 1 diabetes, whereas diet modification is a common approach in managing Type 2 diabetes.

2. A nurse is collecting data from a male client who is scheduled for a left inguinal herniorrhaphy. Which of the following findings is the priority for the nurse to report to the provider?

• A. High blood pressure
• B. Decreased bowel sounds
• C. Constipation
• D. Difficulty urinating

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Difficulty urinating.' This finding is crucial to report promptly as it can indicate a complication, such as urinary retention or injury to the urinary tract, which are significant concerns post-hernia surgery. High blood pressure (Choice A) may require monitoring but is not as urgent as difficulty urinating. Decreased bowel sounds (Choice B) and constipation (Choice C) are common after surgery and may resolve with appropriate interventions but are not as critical as addressing difficulty urinating.

3. A client is given morphine 6 mg IV push for postoperative pain. Following administration of this drug, the nurse observes the following: pulse 68, respirations 8, BP 100/68, client sleeping quietly. Which of the following nursing actions is MOST appropriate?

• A. Allow the client to sleep undisturbed
• B. Administer oxygen via facemask or nasal prongs
• C. Administer naloxone (Narcan)
• D. Place epinephrine 1:1,000 at the bedside

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer naloxone (Narcan). The client's vital signs indicate opioid-induced respiratory depression, which is a potential side effect of morphine. Naloxone is used to reverse the effects of opioids, particularly to restore normal respiratory function. Administering oxygen alone (Choice B) may not address the underlying cause of respiratory depression. Allowing the client to sleep undisturbed (Choice A) is inappropriate when signs of respiratory depression are present. Epinephrine (Choice D) is not indicated in this situation and is not used to reverse opioid effects.

4. What should a healthcare professional do when a client with anorexia nervosa insists on working out constantly?

• A. Allow the client to workout and continue their regimen
• B. Restrict the client's workout regimen to one hour a day
• C. Discuss the risks of over-exercising with the client
• D. Speak to the client privately to uncover the source of the obsession

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When dealing with a client with anorexia nervosa who insists on working out constantly, it is crucial to address the situation sensitively. Speaking to the client privately to uncover the source of the obsession is the most appropriate action. This approach allows the healthcare professional to understand the underlying reasons for the behavior and work towards a solution together. Choices A and B could potentially exacerbate the client's condition by either enabling the behavior or imposing restrictions without addressing the root cause. While choice C is important, simply discussing the risks may not address the client's compulsion to exercise excessively.

5. A nurse is planning to irrigate and dress a clean, granulating wound for a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Irrigate the wound with normal saline.
• B. Apply a wet-to-dry gauze dressing.
• C. Use a cotton ball to cleanse the wound.
• D. Administer an analgesic after the dressing change.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to irrigate the wound with normal saline. Normal saline is the preferred solution for wound irrigation as it is isotonic and gentle, promoting healing in granulating wounds. Choice B, applying a wet-to-dry gauze dressing, is not appropriate for clean, granulating wounds as it can cause trauma to the wound bed upon removal. Choice C, using a cotton ball to cleanse the wound, is not ideal as cotton fibers can adhere to the wound and cause contamination. Choice D, administering an analgesic after the dressing change, is important for pain management but is not directly related to irrigating and dressing the wound.

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