Nursing Elites

1. What is the first priority for a patient in respiratory distress?

• A. Administer oxygen
• B. Assess airway patency
• C. Monitor oxygen saturation
• D. Call for assistance

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer oxygen. In a patient experiencing respiratory distress, the primary concern is ensuring an adequate oxygen supply to the body. By administering oxygen, you can help improve oxygenation, which is crucial for the patient's overall well-being. Assessing airway patency is important but administering oxygen takes precedence as it directly addresses the oxygenation concern. Monitoring oxygen saturation is also essential, but the immediate action should be to provide oxygen. Calling for assistance can be important but is not the first priority when dealing with a patient in respiratory distress.

2. What is a primary symptom of left-sided heart failure?

• A. Shortness of breath
• B. Edema
• C. Rapid heartbeat
• D. Confusion

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Shortness of breath is a primary symptom of left-sided heart failure. In this condition, the heart's inability to pump effectively leads to fluid backing up into the lungs, causing difficulty breathing. Edema (swelling), rapid heartbeat, and confusion are more commonly associated with other conditions or right-sided heart failure. Edema is often seen in right-sided heart failure due to fluid accumulation in the body, rapid heartbeat can be a general sign of heart issues, and confusion is more related to decreased brain perfusion in severe heart failure cases.

3. What is the most important nursing action when administering IV potassium?

• A. Monitor for decreased urine output
• B. Administer via IV push
• C. Administer slowly and dilute in IV fluids
• D. Ensure the client drinks 500 mL of water before administration

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most important nursing action when administering IV potassium is to administer it slowly and dilute it in IV fluids. This approach helps prevent irritation and hyperkalemia. Monitoring for decreased urine output (Choice A) is important but not as critical as ensuring the safe administration of IV potassium. Administering potassium via IV push (Choice B) is unsafe and can lead to adverse effects. Ensuring the client drinks water before administration (Choice D) is not directly related to the safe administration of IV potassium.

4. A charge nurse is observing a newly licensed nurse apply sterile gloves. Which of the following actions by the newly licensed nurse demonstrates sterile technique?

• A. Putting a glove on the dominant hand first
• B. Removing gloves and putting on a sterile gown first
• C. Putting sterile gloves last
• D. Applying gloves without touching outer surfaces

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Putting the glove on the dominant hand first is a key step in maintaining sterile technique as it reduces the risk of contamination. By covering the dominant hand first, the nurse minimizes the risk of contaminating the other hand during the glove application process. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Choice B introduces the concept of a sterile gown, which is not relevant to the question about applying sterile gloves. Choice C is incorrect as putting sterile gloves last does not follow the correct sequence of steps in maintaining sterility. Choice D, while important, is not as critical as covering the dominant hand first when applying sterile gloves.

5. A client is receiving phenytoin for management of grand mal seizures and has a new prescription for isoniazid and rifampin. Which of the following should the nurse conclude if the client develops ataxia and incoordination?

• A. The client is experiencing an adverse reaction to rifampin.
• B. The client's seizure disorder is no longer under control.
• C. The client is showing evidence of phenytoin toxicity.
• D. The client is having adverse effects due to combination antimicrobial therapy.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Ataxia and incoordination are signs of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse reactions to rifampin or isoniazid. These symptoms indicate that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of phenytoin, requiring a dose adjustment. Choice A is incorrect because rifampin is not typically associated with ataxia and incoordination. Choice B is incorrect as the development of ataxia and incoordination does not necessarily mean the seizure disorder is no longer under control. Choice D is incorrect as the symptoms are more indicative of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse effects of combination antimicrobial therapy.

Similar Questions