Nursing Elites

1. A client with dementia is at risk of falling. What is the best intervention to prevent injury?

• A. Place the client in a room close to the nurses' station
• B. Use a bed exit alarm
• C. Encourage family members to stay with the client at all times
• D. Raise all four side rails

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Using a bed exit alarm is the best intervention to prevent injury in a client with dementia at risk of falling. This device alerts staff when the client attempts to leave the bed, allowing for timely assistance and reducing the risk of falls. Placing the client in a room close to the nurses' station may help with supervision but does not provide immediate alerts like a bed exit alarm. Encouraging family members to stay with the client at all times may not be feasible, and raising all four side rails can lead to restraint issues and is not recommended unless necessary for the client's safety.

2. A healthcare professional is managing a client with a wound infection. What is the priority action?

• A. Change the wound dressing every 12 hours
• B. Perform a wound culture before applying antibiotics
• C. Apply a wet-to-dry dressing to the wound
• D. Cleanse the wound with a solution of alcohol and water

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Performing a wound culture before applying antibiotics is crucial to identify the specific pathogen causing the infection. This helps in selecting the most effective antibiotics for treatment. Changing the wound dressing, applying a wet-to-dry dressing, or cleansing the wound are important interventions but should follow the assessment and identification of the infecting organism through a wound culture to guide appropriate treatment.

3. A nurse is receiving change-of-shift report for a group of clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse plan to assess first?

• A. A client who has sinus arrhythmia and is receiving cardiac monitoring.
• B. A client who has diabetes mellitus and a hemoglobin A1C of 6.8%.
• C. A client who has epidural analgesia and weakness in the lower extremities.
• D. A client who has a hip fracture and a new onset of tachypnea.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. New onset of tachypnea indicates a potential respiratory complication that requires immediate attention. Assessing the client with a hip fracture and tachypnea first is crucial to address the respiratory issue and prevent further deterioration. Choices A, B, and C do not present immediate life-threatening complications that require urgent assessment compared to a new onset of tachypnea.

4. What are early indicators of dehydration?

• A. Dry mouth
• B. Increased thirst
• C. Decreased urine output
• D. Dizziness

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, dry mouth, and B, increased thirst are early indicators of dehydration. Dry mouth occurs when the body is dehydrated, and increased thirst is the body's way of trying to increase fluid intake to combat dehydration. Choices C and D, decreased urine output and dizziness, can be signs of severe dehydration but are not typically considered early indicators.

5. A nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client who has a new prescription for haloperidol. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse instruct the client to report to the provider?

• A. Weight gain.
• B. Dry mouth.
• C. Sedation.
• D. Shuffling gait.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Shuffling gait. A shuffling gait can indicate extrapyramidal symptoms, a potentially serious side effect of haloperidol. Extrapyramidal symptoms include movement disorders such as dystonia, akathisia, parkinsonism, and tardive dyskinesia. Reporting this symptom promptly is crucial to prevent further complications. Choices A, B, and C are common side effects of haloperidol but are not as urgent or indicative of serious complications compared to a shuffling gait.

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