Nursing Elites

1. A client with dementia is at risk of falling. What is the best intervention to prevent injury?

• A. Place the client in a room close to the nurses' station
• B. Use a bed exit alarm
• C. Encourage family members to stay with the client at all times
• D. Raise all four side rails

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Using a bed exit alarm is the best intervention to prevent injury in a client with dementia at risk of falling. This device alerts staff when the client attempts to leave the bed, allowing for timely assistance and reducing the risk of falls. Placing the client in a room close to the nurses' station may help with supervision but does not provide immediate alerts like a bed exit alarm. Encouraging family members to stay with the client at all times may not be feasible, and raising all four side rails can lead to restraint issues and is not recommended unless necessary for the client's safety.

2. Which of the following is an early indication that a tracheostomy client requires suctioning?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Irritability
• C. Hypotension
• D. Decreased respiratory rate

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Irritability is indeed an early sign that a tracheostomy client may require suctioning. When a tracheostomy client becomes irritable, it can indicate that there is a need for suctioning to clear the airway. Bradycardia (choice A) refers to a slow heart rate and is not typically a direct indication for suctioning. Hypotension (choice C) indicates low blood pressure and is not specifically related to the need for suctioning. Decreased respiratory rate (choice D) can be a sign of respiratory distress, but irritability is a more direct and early indication of the need for suctioning in a tracheostomy client.

3. How should a healthcare professional assess and manage a patient with dehydration?

• A. Assess skin turgor and monitor intake/output
• B. Encourage oral fluids only
• C. Administer IV fluids immediately
• D. Check for electrolyte imbalance and administer fluids

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct way to assess and manage a patient with dehydration is to assess skin turgor and monitor intake/output. Skin turgor assessment helps in evaluating the degree of dehydration, while monitoring intake/output aids in maintaining fluid balance. Encouraging oral fluids only (Choice B) may not be sufficient for moderate to severe dehydration as patients may need intravenous fluids (IV) to rapidly rehydrate. Administering IV fluids immediately (Choice C) is not always the first step unless the patient is severely dehydrated. Checking for electrolyte imbalance and administering fluids (Choice D) is important but comes after assessing skin turgor and intake/output in the management of dehydration.

4. Which dietary instruction is appropriate for a client with chronic kidney disease?

• A. Increase the intake of potassium
• B. Limit the intake of phosphorus-rich foods
• C. Encourage the intake of protein-rich foods
• D. Advise the client to increase fluid intake

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Limiting the intake of phosphorus-rich foods is appropriate for a client with chronic kidney disease. In individuals with chronic kidney disease, the kidneys cannot filter phosphorus effectively, leading to a buildup in the blood. This can result in bone and heart problems. Therefore, reducing phosphorus intake is crucial to prevent complications. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Increasing potassium intake may be harmful as potassium levels can accumulate in the blood with impaired kidney function. Encouraging protein-rich foods may not be suitable as excessive protein intake can strain the kidneys. Advising to increase fluid intake should be done cautiously as individuals with chronic kidney disease may need to restrict fluids based on their stage of the disease.

5. A nurse is preparing a change-of-shift report for an adult female client who is postoperative. Which of the following client information should the nurse include in the report?

• A. Hgb 12.8 g/dl.
• B. Potassium 4.2 mEq/L.
• C. RBC 4.4 million/mm3.
• D. Platelets 100,000/mm3.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: "Platelets 100,000/mm3." A platelet count of 100,000/mm3 is low and increases the client's risk for bleeding, which is crucial information to communicate during the change-of-shift report. Choices A, B, and C provide values within normal ranges and are not directly related to the client's postoperative status or risk for complications. Therefore, they are not the priority information to include in the report.

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