a nurse is caring for a client who has dementia and is at risk of falling what is the best intervention to prevent injury
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Nursing Elites

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1. A client with dementia is at risk of falling. What is the best intervention to prevent injury?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Using a bed exit alarm is the best intervention to prevent injury in a client with dementia at risk of falling. This device alerts staff when the client attempts to leave the bed, allowing for timely assistance and reducing the risk of falls. Placing the client in a room close to the nurses' station may help with supervision but does not provide immediate alerts like a bed exit alarm. Encouraging family members to stay with the client at all times may not be feasible, and raising all four side rails can lead to restraint issues and is not recommended unless necessary for the client's safety.

2. When providing discharge teaching to a client with diabetes, what is the most important instruction?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering insulin as prescribed before meals is crucial for managing diabetes. This instruction is vital as it helps the client maintain blood sugar levels within the target range. Checking blood sugar levels once daily is important but not as critical as ensuring the timely administration of insulin. Taking medication only when feeling unwell is dangerous as it may lead to uncontrolled blood sugar levels. Eating carbohydrate-rich meals may actually destabilize blood sugar levels rather than stabilizing them, making it an incorrect choice.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has an altered mental status and has become aggressive. Which of the following prescriptions should the nurse clarify with the provider prior to administration?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Zolpidem. Zolpidem is a sedative-hypnotic medication that can worsen altered mental status, especially in clients who are already aggressive. Therefore, the nurse should clarify this prescription with the provider before administration to ensure it is safe for the client. Choice A, Haloperidol, is an antipsychotic commonly used to manage aggression in clients with altered mental status, making it an appropriate choice in this scenario. Choice C, Morphine, is an opioid analgesic and would not directly impact the client's altered mental status or aggression. Choice D, Lorazepam, is a benzodiazepine used to manage anxiety and agitation, which could be beneficial in this situation but does not have the same potential to exacerbate altered mental status as Zolpidem.

4. A healthcare professional is reviewing the medical record of a client who underwent surgery for a hip fracture. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report to the provider?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Fever. Fever in a postoperative client can indicate an infection, which is a serious complication and should be reported immediately to the provider for further evaluation and management. Clear lung sounds (Choice A) are a positive finding indicating normal respiratory function. Pain in the operative leg (Choice C) is expected postoperatively and should be managed with appropriate pain relief measures. Capillary refill of 2 seconds (Choice D) is within the normal range (less than 3 seconds) and is not a concerning finding postoperatively.

5. The nurse is performing triage on a group of clients in the emergency department. Which of the following clients should the nurse see first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A 19-year-old with a fever of 103.8°F who is confused and unable to orient to place and time likely has a severe infection or a serious medical condition affecting the central nervous system. This client needs immediate attention as altered mental status combined with a high fever can indicate a life-threatening situation. Choices A, C, and D present important conditions that require medical care, but they are not as urgent as the 19-year-old with a high fever and confusion. The 12-year-old with a laceration may require treatment for bleeding and a tetanus shot, the 49-year-old with a compound fracture needs urgent orthopedic intervention, and the 65-year-old with a high blood sugar is concerning for hyperglycemia but can wait momentarily compared to the client with a fever and altered mental status.

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