Nursing Elites

1. A client is receiving phenytoin for management of grand mal seizures and has a new prescription for isoniazid and rifampin. Which of the following should the nurse conclude if the client develops ataxia and incoordination?

• A. The client is experiencing an adverse reaction to rifampin.
• B. The client's seizure disorder is no longer under control.
• C. The client is showing evidence of phenytoin toxicity.
• D. The client is having adverse effects due to combination antimicrobial therapy.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Ataxia and incoordination are signs of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse reactions to rifampin or isoniazid. These symptoms indicate that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of phenytoin, requiring a dose adjustment. Choice A is incorrect because rifampin is not typically associated with ataxia and incoordination. Choice B is incorrect as the development of ataxia and incoordination does not necessarily mean the seizure disorder is no longer under control. Choice D is incorrect as the symptoms are more indicative of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse effects of combination antimicrobial therapy.

2. When should a nurse suction a client with a tracheostomy?

• A. Every 6 hours, regardless of distress signs
• B. When the client's respiratory rate drops below 10
• C. When the client shows signs of irritability
• D. When the client begins to cough or show signs of airway blockage

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to suction the client when they show signs of irritability. Signs of irritability, such as restlessness or agitation, can indicate the need for suctioning in a client with a tracheostomy. This early indicator suggests that there may be an accumulation of secretions affecting the client's airway. Suctioning should be performed promptly to maintain a clear airway and prevent complications. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because suctioning should be based on clinical signs and symptoms indicating the need for intervention, rather than a fixed schedule or specific vital sign parameters.

3. What are the differences between viral and bacterial infections?

• A. Viral infections often cause fatigue and body aches
• B. Bacterial infections often cause high fever and localized pain
• C. Viral infections are treated with antibiotics
• D. Bacterial infections are usually self-limiting

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Viral infections often cause fatigue and body aches, while bacterial infections are more likely to cause high fever and localized pain. Choice A is the correct answer as it accurately reflects the symptoms commonly associated with viral infections. Bacterial infections, on the other hand, typically present with fever and localized pain, as stated in choice B. Choice C is incorrect as viral infections do not respond to antibiotics, while choice D is inaccurate because bacterial infections may require antibiotic treatment and are not always self-limiting.

4. What is the primary action the nurse should take first for a client with a pressure ulcer who has a serum albumin level of 3 g/dL?

• A. Increase the protein intake in the diet
• B. Consult with a dietitian to create a high-protein diet
• C. Increase the IV fluid infusion rate
• D. Administer a protein supplement

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to consult with a dietitian to create a high-protein diet. A serum albumin level of 3 g/dL indicates hypoalbuminemia, which can impair wound healing. Consulting with a dietitian to optimize the client's protein intake is crucial in promoting wound healing for pressure ulcers. Increasing the protein intake in the diet (Choice A) may not be sufficient without proper guidance from a dietitian. Increasing the IV fluid infusion rate (Choice C) is not directly related to addressing the protein deficiency. Administering a protein supplement (Choice D) should be guided by a healthcare professional's recommendation after consulting with a dietitian.

5. What is the first step when administering a blood transfusion?

• A. Warm the blood to body temperature
• B. Verify the client's blood type before administration
• C. Administer the blood through an IV push
• D. Administer diuretics before the transfusion

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to verify the client's blood type before administration. This step is crucial to ensure compatibility and prevent adverse reactions such as hemolytic transfusion reactions. Warming the blood to body temperature (Choice A) is not the first step and is not typically done during blood transfusions. Administering the blood through an IV push (Choice C) is incorrect as blood transfusions are usually administered as a slow infusion. Administering diuretics before the transfusion (Choice D) is unnecessary and not a standard practice when initiating a blood transfusion.

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