ATI LPN
ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 with NGN
1. A client is receiving phenytoin for management of grand mal seizures and has a new prescription for isoniazid and rifampin. Which of the following should the nurse conclude if the client develops ataxia and incoordination?
- A. The client is experiencing an adverse reaction to rifampin.
- B. The client's seizure disorder is no longer under control.
- C. The client is showing evidence of phenytoin toxicity.
- D. The client is having adverse effects due to combination antimicrobial therapy.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Ataxia and incoordination are signs of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse reactions to rifampin or isoniazid. These symptoms indicate that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of phenytoin, requiring a dose adjustment. Choice A is incorrect because rifampin is not typically associated with ataxia and incoordination. Choice B is incorrect as the development of ataxia and incoordination does not necessarily mean the seizure disorder is no longer under control. Choice D is incorrect as the symptoms are more indicative of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse effects of combination antimicrobial therapy.
2. Which of the following interventions is most appropriate for a client with left-leg weakness who is learning to use a cane?
- A. Maintain two points of support on the floor at all times
- B. Use the cane on the weak side of the body
- C. Advance the cane and the strong leg simultaneously
- D. Advance the cane 30 to 45 cm (12-18 in) with each step
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The most appropriate intervention for a client with left-leg weakness learning to use a cane is to maintain two points of support on the floor at all times. This ensures stability and helps distribute weight evenly between the legs, reducing the risk of falls. Using the cane on the weak side of the body (Choice B) may not provide adequate support. Advancing the cane and the strong leg simultaneously (Choice C) can lead to imbalance and increases the risk of falls. Advancing the cane too far with each step (Choice D) can also compromise balance and stability.
3. A nurse is caring for a client with a chest tube post-surgery. What is the most important assessment?
- A. Ensure the chest tube is clamped periodically
- B. Check for air leaks and ensure proper chest tube function
- C. Encourage deep breathing and coughing every 2 hours
- D. Ensure the client is positioned in a high Fowler's position
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Check for air leaks and ensure proper chest tube function.' This is the most important assessment for a client with a chest tube post-surgery because it ensures that the chest tube is functioning properly. Checking for air leaks helps prevent complications such as pneumothorax or hemothorax. Choice A is incorrect because clamping the chest tube periodically can lead to serious complications and should not be done unless specifically ordered by a healthcare provider. Choice C is important for promoting lung expansion but is not the most critical assessment related to the chest tube. Choice D is also important for respiratory function but is not the priority when assessing a chest tube post-surgery.
4. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who is undergoing screening for prostate cancer. The nurse should expect an elevation in which of the following laboratory values?
- A. Prostate-specific antigen (PSA)
- B. Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
- C. Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP)
- D. Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA)
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Prostate-specific antigen (PSA). PSA is a marker specifically used for prostate cancer screening. Elevated levels of PSA can indicate prostate cancer or other prostate-related issues, prompting the need for further diagnostic investigations. Choices B, C, and D are not typically associated with prostate cancer screening. Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) is related to pregnancy, alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) is associated with liver and germ cell tumors, and carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) is linked to colorectal cancer.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving intermittent enteral tube feedings. Which of the following places the client at risk for aspiration?
- A. A history of gastroesophageal reflux disease.
- B. Receiving a formula with high osmolarity.
- C. Sitting in a high-Fowler's position during the feeding.
- D. A residual of 65 mL 1 hour postprandial.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: A history of gastroesophageal reflux disease. Clients with gastroesophageal reflux disease have a higher risk of aspiration during tube feeding due to the potential for reflux of stomach contents into the lungs. This increases the risk of aspiration pneumonia. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. High osmolarity formulas may cause diarrhea but do not directly increase the risk of aspiration. Sitting in a high-Fowler's position actually reduces the risk of aspiration by promoting proper digestion and reducing the chance of regurgitation. A residual of 65 mL 1 hour postprandial is within an acceptable range and does not directly indicate a risk for aspiration.
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