ATI LPN
ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 with NGN
1. A client is receiving phenytoin for management of grand mal seizures and has a new prescription for isoniazid and rifampin. Which of the following should the nurse conclude if the client develops ataxia and incoordination?
- A. The client is experiencing an adverse reaction to rifampin.
- B. The client's seizure disorder is no longer under control.
- C. The client is showing evidence of phenytoin toxicity.
- D. The client is having adverse effects due to combination antimicrobial therapy.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Ataxia and incoordination are signs of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse reactions to rifampin or isoniazid. These symptoms indicate that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of phenytoin, requiring a dose adjustment. Choice A is incorrect because rifampin is not typically associated with ataxia and incoordination. Choice B is incorrect as the development of ataxia and incoordination does not necessarily mean the seizure disorder is no longer under control. Choice D is incorrect as the symptoms are more indicative of phenytoin toxicity rather than adverse effects of combination antimicrobial therapy.
2. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results for a client who has end-stage liver disease. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Elevated albumin
- B. Elevated ammonia
- C. Decreased total bilirubin
- D. Decreased prothrombin time
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In end-stage liver disease, the liver's inability to convert ammonia into urea leads to elevated ammonia levels. Elevated ammonia levels can result in hepatic encephalopathy, a serious complication. Therefore, the correct answer is B. Elevated albumin (Choice A) is not typically seen in end-stage liver disease as liver dysfunction often leads to decreased albumin levels. Decreased total bilirubin (Choice C) is unlikely in end-stage liver disease, as bilirubin levels tend to be elevated due to impaired liver function. Decreased prothrombin time (Choice D) is also not expected in end-stage liver disease, as impaired liver function results in prolonged prothrombin time.
3. A 65-year-old man presents with weight loss, jaundice, and a palpable mass in the right upper quadrant. Laboratory tests reveal elevated bilirubin and alkaline phosphatase levels. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Gallstones
- B. Hepatitis
- C. Pancreatic cancer
- D. Primary biliary cirrhosis
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The combination of weight loss, jaundice, a palpable mass in the right upper quadrant, and elevated bilirubin and alkaline phosphatase levels strongly suggests pancreatic cancer. The presentation is classic for pancreatic malignancy, which commonly presents with obstructive jaundice due to the tumor blocking the common bile duct, leading to elevated bilirubin and alkaline phosphatase levels. Weight loss is a common symptom of advanced pancreatic cancer. The palpable mass in the right upper quadrant corresponds to the location of the pancreas. Gallstones typically manifest with different symptoms, while hepatitis and primary biliary cirrhosis are less likely to present with a palpable mass and weight loss in this scenario.
4. A nurse is caring for an infant who has a prescription for continuous pulse oximetry. Which of the following is an appropriate action for the nurse to take?
- A. Place the infant under a radiant warmer
- B. Move the probe site every 3 hours
- C. Heat the skin one minute prior to placing the probe
- D. Place the sensor on the index finger
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to move the probe site every 3 hours. This action helps prevent skin breakdown and ensures more accurate monitoring of oxygen saturation. Placing the infant under a radiant warmer (choice A) is unnecessary and not related to pulse oximetry. Heating the skin before placing the probe (choice C) can lead to burns and is not recommended. Placing the sensor on the index finger (choice D) is not appropriate for continuous monitoring in infants.
5. When assessing a geriatric patient who has possibly experienced an acute ischemic stroke, which of the following questions would be MOST appropriate to ask?
- A. When did you first notice the symptoms?
- B. Do you have a history of high blood pressure?
- C. What medications do you take and why?
- D. Have you previously had a heart attack?
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The most appropriate question to ask when assessing a geriatric patient who may have experienced an acute ischemic stroke is when the symptoms were first noticed. This information is crucial for determining the time window for potential treatments like thrombolytic therapy, as prompt intervention is necessary for stroke management. Option B is not as relevant in the acute assessment of stroke, though important for overall health history. Option C is important but may not be as time-sensitive as determining symptom onset. Option D focuses on a different cardiac event, not directly related to the current concern of a possible stroke.
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