Nursing Elites

1. What are the signs of hypovolemic shock and what is the nurse's role in management?

• A. Rapid pulse, low blood pressure; administer IV fluids
• B. Cold extremities, rapid breathing; administer oxygen
• C. Decreased urine output, sweating; administer diuretics
• D. Weak pulse, clammy skin; administer vasopressors

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct signs of hypovolemic shock are a rapid pulse and low blood pressure. Administering IV fluids helps to restore circulating volume, which is essential in managing hypovolemic shock. Choice B is incorrect because cold extremities and rapid breathing are not typical signs of hypovolemic shock. Choice C is incorrect as administering diuretics would further decrease circulating volume, worsening the condition. Choice D is incorrect as administering vasopressors may further compromise perfusion in hypovolemic shock.

2. A nurse is reviewing the plan of care for a client who is receiving oxygen therapy. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include to prevent complications?

• A. Check the client's oxygen saturation every 2 hours
• B. Provide humidified oxygen
• C. Instruct the client to perform deep breathing exercises
• D. Use an oxygen mask for delivery

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Provide humidified oxygen. Providing humidified oxygen helps prevent dryness and irritation of the respiratory tract during oxygen therapy. This intervention is crucial in preventing complications such as mucous membrane dryness and potential damage to the airways. Checking the client's oxygen saturation every 2 hours (choice A) is essential for monitoring the client's response to therapy but does not directly prevent complications. Instructing the client to perform deep breathing exercises (choice C) is beneficial for respiratory function but does not directly address preventing complications related to oxygen therapy. Using an oxygen mask for delivery (choice D) is a common method of administering oxygen but does not specifically focus on preventing complications like dryness and irritation.

3. A nurse is caring for a 37-year-old woman with metastatic ovarian cancer admitted for nausea and vomiting. The physician orders total parenteral nutrition (TPN), a nutritional consult, and diet recall. Which of the following is the BEST indication that the patient's nutritional status has improved after 4 days?

• A. The patient eats most of the food served to her
• B. The patient has gained 1 pound since admission
• C. The patient's albumin level is 4.0mg/dL
• D. The patient's hemoglobin is 8.5g/dL

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An improved albumin level is the best indicator of improved nutritional status after TPN. Albumin is a key protein that reflects the body's overall nutritional status and is commonly used to assess nutritional health. Choices A, B, and D are not as reliable indicators of improved nutritional status. Choice A may not accurately reflect nutritional improvement as it could be influenced by factors other than nutrition. Choice B may indicate fluid retention or loss rather than true nutritional improvement. Choice D, hemoglobin level, is more related to anemia and oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood, rather than nutritional status.

4. A client is being taught about taking warfarin to treat atrial fibrillation. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will take this medication on an empty stomach.
• B. If I forget to take a dose, I can take it later on the same day.
• C. I will skip my dose if I forget to take it.
• D. I can take an additional dose if I miss one.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because taking warfarin later on the same day if a dose is missed helps maintain therapeutic levels. Choice A is incorrect because warfarin should be taken with food to enhance absorption. Choice C is incorrect as skipping a dose can lead to fluctuations in warfarin levels. Choice D is incorrect as taking an additional dose can increase the risk of bleeding.

5. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is receiving warfarin for atrial fibrillation. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. International normalized ratio (INR) of 2.5
• B. Platelet count of 180,000/mm³
• C. Prothrombin time (PT) of 12 seconds
• D. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) of 30 seconds

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A prothrombin time (PT) of 12 seconds is below the therapeutic range for warfarin and indicates a need for dosage adjustment. The correct answer is C. A normal International normalized ratio (INR) for a client on warfarin therapy is usually between 2.0 to 3.0; therefore, an INR of 2.5 is within the expected range. A platelet count of 180,000/mm³ is within the normal range (150,000 to 450,000/mm³) and does not require immediate reporting. A partial thromboplastin time (PTT) of 30 seconds is also within the normal range (25-35 seconds) and does not indicate a need for urgent action.

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