Nursing Elites

1. What are the signs of hypovolemic shock and what is the nurse's role in management?

• A. Rapid pulse, low blood pressure; administer IV fluids
• B. Cold extremities, rapid breathing; administer oxygen
• C. Decreased urine output, sweating; administer diuretics
• D. Weak pulse, clammy skin; administer vasopressors

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct signs of hypovolemic shock are a rapid pulse and low blood pressure. Administering IV fluids helps to restore circulating volume, which is essential in managing hypovolemic shock. Choice B is incorrect because cold extremities and rapid breathing are not typical signs of hypovolemic shock. Choice C is incorrect as administering diuretics would further decrease circulating volume, worsening the condition. Choice D is incorrect as administering vasopressors may further compromise perfusion in hypovolemic shock.

2. What should a healthcare professional assess in a patient presenting with symptoms of a stroke?

• A. Assess facial drooping
• B. Monitor speech difficulties
• C. Evaluate arm weakness
• D. Check for time of onset of symptoms

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When assessing a patient with suspected stroke symptoms, it is crucial to check for facial drooping as it can be a sign of facial nerve weakness, which is a common indicator of stroke. While monitoring speech difficulties and evaluating arm weakness are also important assessments in stroke cases, they are secondary to facial drooping. Checking for the time of onset of symptoms is essential to determine eligibility for time-sensitive treatments like thrombolytic therapy, but when prioritizing assessments, facial drooping takes precedence.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who is 2 hours postoperative following an appendectomy. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Urine output of 20 mL/hr.
• B. Temperature of 36.5°C (97.7°F).
• C. Sanguineous drainage on the surgical dressing.
• D. WBC count of 9,000/mm3.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Urine output of 20 mL/hr. A urine output less than 30 mL/hr can indicate decreased renal perfusion, potentially due to hypovolemia or other issues, and should be reported to the provider. B: A temperature of 36.5°C (97.7°F) falls within the normal range and does not require immediate reporting. C: Sanguineous drainage on the surgical dressing is expected in the early postoperative period and should be monitored but does not need immediate reporting unless excessive. D: A WBC count of 9,000/mm3 is within the normal range and does not indicate an immediate concern.

4. Which of the following interventions is the best to improve the healing of a pressure ulcer for a client with a low serum albumin level?

• A. Provide high-calorie, high-protein supplements
• B. Consult a dietitian to create a high-protein diet plan
• C. Administer nutritional supplements
• D. Increase IV fluids to prevent dehydration

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Consulting a dietitian to create a high-protein diet plan is the best intervention for a client with a low serum albumin level to promote healing. This approach ensures that the client receives the specific nutrients needed for wound healing. Providing high-calorie, high-protein supplements (choice A) may not address the specific nutritional deficiencies of the client. Administering nutritional supplements (choice C) is vague and may not target the necessary nutrients for wound healing. Increasing IV fluids (choice D) is important for hydration but does not directly address the nutritional needs of the client to improve ulcer healing.

5. A client who decides not to have surgery despite significant blockages in his coronary arteries is an example of what principle?

• A. Fidelity
• B. Autonomy
• C. Justice
• D. Non-maleficence

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Autonomy. Autonomy in healthcare refers to respecting a patient's right to make decisions about their own care, even if those decisions may not align with healthcare providers' recommendations. In this scenario, the client's decision not to have surgery despite significant blockages in his coronary arteries demonstrates his autonomy in making choices about his own health. Choice A, Fidelity, refers to the concept of keeping promises and being faithful to commitments, which is not applicable in this situation. Choice C, Justice, involves fairness and equal treatment in healthcare, which is not the primary principle at play when a patient exercises autonomy. Choice D, Non-maleficence, relates to the principle of doing no harm, which is important but not directly relevant to the client's decision to refuse surgery.

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