Nursing Elites

1. What are the signs of an acute myocardial infarction?

• A. Chest pain radiating to the arm and shortness of breath
• B. Nausea, vomiting, and high fever
• C. Headache, confusion, and low blood pressure
• D. Increased heart rate and bradycardia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Chest pain radiating to the arm and shortness of breath. These are classic signs of an acute myocardial infarction. Choice B is incorrect because nausea, vomiting, and high fever are not typical signs of a heart attack. Choice C is incorrect as headache, confusion, and low blood pressure are not specific to myocardial infarction. Choice D is incorrect because an acute myocardial infarction typically presents with an increased heart rate, not bradycardia.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Administer the TPN through a peripheral IV catheter.
• B. Check the client's capillary blood glucose level every 4 hours.
• C. Heat the TPN solution to room temperature before administering.
• D. Weigh the client every 3 days.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to check the client's capillary blood glucose level every 4 hours. Clients receiving TPN are at risk for hyperglycemia, so regular monitoring of blood glucose levels is essential to detect and manage hyperglycemia promptly. Administering TPN through a peripheral IV catheter (Choice A) is incorrect as TPN should be given through a central venous catheter to prevent complications. Heating the TPN solution to room temperature (Choice C) is unnecessary and not a standard practice. Weighing the client every 3 days (Choice D) is important for monitoring fluid status but is not the priority action when caring for a client receiving TPN.

3. A nurse is assisting with monitoring a client who is in labor and has spontaneous rupture of membranes following a vaginal examination. The provider reports the client's cervix is dilated to 1 cm with an unengaged presenting part. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Encourage the client to bear down
• B. Apply the external fetal monitor
• C. Provide the client with fluids
• D. Administer IV fluids

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, with the client's cervix dilated to only 1 cm and an unengaged presenting part, the priority action is to apply the external fetal monitor. This allows for continuous monitoring of the fetal heart rate during early labor, which is crucial for assessing fetal well-being. Encouraging the client to bear down is not appropriate at 1 cm dilation, as it may not be effective and can lead to exhaustion. Providing the client with fluids or administering IV fluids may be necessary for hydration, but the immediate concern is monitoring fetal well-being.

4. The nurse is supervising the staff providing care for an 18-month-old hospitalized with hepatitis A. The nurse determines that the staff's care is appropriate if which of the following is observed?

• A. The child is placed in a private room
• B. The staff removes a toy from the child's bed and takes it to the nurse's station
• C. The staff offers the child french fries and a vanilla milkshake for a midafternoon snack
• D. The staff uses standard precautions

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Private room placement is crucial when caring for a patient with hepatitis A to prevent the transmission of the disease to others. Placing the child in a private room helps contain the infection and protect other patients and staff. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because removing a toy from the child's bed, offering specific snacks, or using standard precautions, while important in general care, are not specific measures required to prevent the spread of hepatitis A.

5. A nurse is collecting data from a client who has myasthenia gravis (MG). Which of the following images should the nurse identify as an indication that the client is experiencing ptosis?

• A. Drooping eyelids
• B. Unequal pupils
• C. Facial twitching
• D. Facial droop

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Drooping eyelids.' Ptosis, characterized by drooping of the eyelid, is a classic symptom seen in myasthenia gravis. This occurs due to muscle weakness, particularly in the muscles that control eyelid movement. Choice B, 'Unequal pupils,' is not associated with ptosis and may indicate other neurological issues. Choice C, 'Facial twitching,' is not a typical sign of ptosis but could be related to other conditions like nerve irritation. Choice D, 'Facial droop,' is more commonly seen in conditions affecting the facial nerve, like Bell's palsy, and is not a characteristic feature of myasthenia gravis.

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