Nursing Elites

1. What are the signs of an acute myocardial infarction?

• A. Chest pain radiating to the arm and shortness of breath
• B. Nausea, vomiting, and high fever
• C. Headache, confusion, and low blood pressure
• D. Increased heart rate and bradycardia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Chest pain radiating to the arm and shortness of breath. These are classic signs of an acute myocardial infarction. Choice B is incorrect because nausea, vomiting, and high fever are not typical signs of a heart attack. Choice C is incorrect as headache, confusion, and low blood pressure are not specific to myocardial infarction. Choice D is incorrect because an acute myocardial infarction typically presents with an increased heart rate, not bradycardia.

2. What should a healthcare professional assess in a patient presenting with symptoms of a stroke?

• A. Assess facial drooping
• B. Monitor speech difficulties
• C. Evaluate arm weakness
• D. Check for time of onset of symptoms

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When assessing a patient with suspected stroke symptoms, it is crucial to check for facial drooping as it can be a sign of facial nerve weakness, which is a common indicator of stroke. While monitoring speech difficulties and evaluating arm weakness are also important assessments in stroke cases, they are secondary to facial drooping. Checking for the time of onset of symptoms is essential to determine eligibility for time-sensitive treatments like thrombolytic therapy, but when prioritizing assessments, facial drooping takes precedence.

3. Which of the following is an expected side effect of furosemide?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Hypokalemia
• C. Increased blood pressure
• D. Increased urine output

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that works by increasing the excretion of water and electrolytes, including potassium, leading to hypokalemia. Choice A, Bradycardia, is incorrect because furosemide does not typically cause a decrease in heart rate. Choice C, Increased blood pressure, is incorrect as furosemide is actually used to lower blood pressure by reducing fluid volume. Choice D, Increased urine output, is a common effect of furosemide due to its diuretic action but is not an adverse side effect.

4. How should a healthcare provider respond to a patient experiencing acute chest pain?

• A. Administer prescribed nitroglycerin
• B. Provide oxygen
• C. Call for emergency assistance
• D. Reassure the patient

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the case of a patient experiencing acute chest pain, the initial response should include administering prescribed nitroglycerin. Nitroglycerin helps dilate blood vessels and improve blood flow to the heart, which can be beneficial in managing chest pain related to cardiac issues. Providing oxygen can also be helpful to support oxygenation. However, the priority in this scenario is to address the potential cardiac cause by administering nitroglycerin. Calling for emergency assistance is crucial if the patient's condition does not improve or deteriorates. Reassuring the patient is essential for emotional support but should not be the primary intervention in the case of acute chest pain.

5. A client is learning about preventing hip dislocation before total hip arthroplasty. Which instruction should be included?

• A. Avoid bending the hip more than 90 degrees
• B. Avoid lying on the unaffected side
• C. Avoid crossing the legs at the knees
• D. Avoid keeping the legs in a neutral position

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction to prevent hip dislocation after total hip arthroplasty is to avoid crossing the legs at the knees. This position can put stress on the hip joint and increase the risk of dislocation. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Bending the hip more than 90 degrees, lying on the unaffected side, or keeping the legs in a neutral position are not directly related to preventing hip dislocation in this context.

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