Nursing Elites

1. What are the signs of an acute myocardial infarction?

• A. Chest pain radiating to the arm and shortness of breath
• B. Nausea, vomiting, and high fever
• C. Headache, confusion, and low blood pressure
• D. Increased heart rate and bradycardia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Chest pain radiating to the arm and shortness of breath. These are classic signs of an acute myocardial infarction. Choice B is incorrect because nausea, vomiting, and high fever are not typical signs of a heart attack. Choice C is incorrect as headache, confusion, and low blood pressure are not specific to myocardial infarction. Choice D is incorrect because an acute myocardial infarction typically presents with an increased heart rate, not bradycardia.

2. What is the primary intervention for sepsis?

• A. Administer IV antibiotics
• B. Monitor blood pressure
• C. Administer fluids
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The primary intervention for sepsis involves a multifaceted approach, including administering IV antibiotics to address the underlying infection and administering fluids to stabilize the patient's hemodynamic status. Monitoring blood pressure is important in the management of sepsis, but it is not the sole primary intervention. Therefore, the correct answer is 'All of the above' as it encompasses the comprehensive approach required for effective sepsis management.

3. How should a healthcare provider respond to a patient experiencing a seizure?

• A. Protect the airway and monitor for post-ictal confusion
• B. Administer anticonvulsant medications
• C. Apply restraints to prevent injury
• D. Place the patient in a side-lying position

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a patient is experiencing a seizure, the immediate priority is to ensure their safety by placing them in a side-lying position. This helps prevent aspiration in case of vomiting and maintains an open airway. Administering anticonvulsant medications is not within the scope of a healthcare provider's immediate response during a seizure. Applying restraints can potentially harm the patient by restricting movement and causing injury. Monitoring for post-ictal confusion is important after the seizure has ended, but the primary concern during the seizure is ensuring the patient's safety.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who has been experiencing chronic pain. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement?

• A. Provide the client with distractions such as television
• B. Administer pain medication around the clock
• C. Teach the client relaxation techniques
• D. Perform massage therapy on the client

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client experiencing chronic pain is to teach relaxation techniques. This helps the client manage pain more effectively by reducing stress and anxiety, which can contribute to the perception of pain. Providing distractions like television (Choice A) may offer temporary relief but does not address the underlying issue of chronic pain. Administering pain medication around the clock (Choice B) may lead to dependency and not promote holistic pain management. Massage therapy (Choice D) can be beneficial but may not be as effective as teaching relaxation techniques in the long term for managing chronic pain.

5. A client is receiving furosemide. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor?

• A. Sodium
• B. Potassium
• C. Calcium
• D. Magnesium

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Potassium. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium depletion through increased urinary excretion. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent hypokalemia, which can lead to cardiac dysrhythmias, muscle weakness, and other serious complications. Monitoring sodium, calcium, and magnesium levels is not typically associated with furosemide therapy, making choices A, C, and D incorrect.

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