Nursing Elites

1. What are the risk factors for the development of pressure ulcers, and how can they be prevented?

• A. Immobility and poor nutrition
• B. Increased mobility and proper hygiene
• C. Excess moisture and lack of movement
• D. Frequent turning and repositioning

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Immobility and poor nutrition are significant risk factors for pressure ulcers. Immobility leads to prolonged pressure on certain body areas, increasing the risk of tissue damage. Poor nutrition can impair skin integrity and the body's ability to heal. Prevention strategies include frequent turning and repositioning to relieve pressure points. Choice B is incorrect because increased mobility actually reduces the risk of pressure ulcers. Choice C is incorrect as excess moisture can contribute to skin breakdown, but it is not a primary risk factor. Choice D is incorrect as frequent turning and repositioning are part of the prevention measures, not risk factors.

2. What are the key nursing assessments for a patient receiving enteral feeding?

• A. Monitor gastric residual volume and check for abdominal distension
• B. Ensure the correct placement of the feeding tube
• C. Assess for signs of dehydration and electrolyte imbalances
• D. Elevate the head of the bed to prevent aspiration

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Monitor gastric residual volume and check for abdominal distension. These assessments are critical to evaluate the patient's tolerance to enteral feeding. Monitoring gastric residual volume helps determine gastric emptying, while checking for abdominal distension can identify complications like bowel obstruction. Choices B, C, and D are important aspects of enteral feeding care but are not the primary assessments. Ensuring the correct placement of the feeding tube is crucial for safety, assessing for signs of dehydration and electrolyte imbalances is essential for overall patient well-being, and elevating the head of the bed is vital to prevent aspiration. However, these are not the key assessments specifically related to enteral feeding.

3. A healthcare professional is caring for a client with coronary artery disease (CAD) who is prescribed aspirin. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report to the provider?

• A. A history of gastrointestinal bleeding
• B. A history of hypertension
• C. A platelet count of 180,000/mm³
• D. A prothrombin time (PT) of 12 seconds

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: A history of gastrointestinal bleeding. Patients with a history of gastrointestinal bleeding are at increased risk of complications when taking aspirin due to its effects on platelet function and the gastrointestinal tract. Reporting this finding to the provider is crucial to ensure patient safety. Choices B, C, and D are not directly related to the increased risk associated with aspirin use in patients with a history of gastrointestinal bleeding, making them less relevant in this scenario. While monitoring platelet count and PT are important in patients taking aspirin, a history of gastrointestinal bleeding takes precedence as it directly impacts the safety and effectiveness of aspirin therapy in this client.

4. A client who is to undergo a colonoscopy is being taught by a nurse about the procedure. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will drink liquids right up until the procedure.
• B. I will need to stop eating and drinking at least 24 hours before the procedure.
• C. I will be sedated and will not feel any pain during the procedure.
• D. I will not need to follow any specific dietary restrictions for this procedure.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Choice C is the correct answer. During a colonoscopy, clients are typically sedated, so they do not feel any pain during the procedure. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Clients are usually required to stop eating and drinking at least 24 hours before a colonoscopy, and there are specific dietary restrictions that need to be followed before the procedure to ensure a successful examination.

5. How should a healthcare professional manage a patient with suspected infection?

• A. Monitor vital signs and administer antibiotics
• B. Check for fever and monitor white blood cell count
• C. Assess for pain and check for localized swelling
• D. Monitor for chills and administer fluids

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct answer: When managing a patient with suspected infection, it is crucial to monitor vital signs like temperature, heart rate, blood pressure, and respiratory rate to assess the severity of the infection. Administering antibiotics is also essential to treat the infection. Choice B is incorrect because while checking for fever and monitoring white blood cell count are important, they alone are not sufficient to manage the patient. Choice C focuses on assessing pain and localized swelling, which are important but not primary in managing suspected infection. Choice D mentions monitoring for chills and administering fluids, which are not the primary interventions for managing a suspected infection.

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