Nursing Elites

1. What are early indicators of dehydration?

• A. Dry mouth
• B. Increased thirst
• C. Decreased urine output
• D. Dizziness

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, dry mouth, and B, increased thirst are early indicators of dehydration. Dry mouth occurs when the body is dehydrated, and increased thirst is the body's way of trying to increase fluid intake to combat dehydration. Choices C and D, decreased urine output and dizziness, can be signs of severe dehydration but are not typically considered early indicators.

2. A nurse is teaching a client who is to undergo radiation therapy for breast cancer about potential adverse effects. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Fatigue
• B. Constipation
• C. Hair loss
• D. Weight gain

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct adverse effect that the nurse should include in the teaching is fatigue. Fatigue is a common side effect of radiation therapy, particularly with prolonged treatment. Constipation, hair loss, and weight gain are not typically associated with radiation therapy for breast cancer, making them incorrect choices. Fatigue can significantly impact a patient's quality of life during treatment and should be addressed proactively by healthcare providers.

3. What are the key considerations for managing a patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)?

• A. Airway Management
• B. Oxygen Therapy
• C. Smoking Cessation
• D. Pulmonary Rehabilitation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The key considerations for managing a patient with COPD include airway management, ensuring adequate oxygenation, promoting smoking cessation, and incorporating pulmonary rehabilitation. While airway management is crucial for maintaining patency and preventing exacerbations, oxygen therapy helps improve oxygen levels in the blood. Smoking cessation is essential to slow down disease progression and reduce exacerbation risk. Pulmonary rehabilitation plays a vital role in enhancing exercise tolerance and overall quality of life for COPD patients. Therefore, while all options are important in managing COPD, airway management is the most critical aspect.

4. What is the most important intervention when managing a client with delirium?

• A. Administer a sedative to reduce agitation
• B. Identify any reversible causes of delirium
• C. Increase environmental stimulation
• D. Limit noise and provide a calm environment

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Identify any reversible causes of delirium.' When managing a client with delirium, it is crucial to first identify and address any reversible factors contributing to the delirium. Administering sedatives (Choice A) may worsen delirium and is not the primary intervention. Increasing environmental stimulation (Choice C) can exacerbate symptoms. Limiting noise and providing a calm environment (Choice D) are beneficial but not as crucial as identifying reversible causes.

5. A healthcare professional is reviewing the medical record of a client who is receiving furosemide. Which of the following laboratory values should the healthcare professional monitor while the client is taking this medication?

• A. Sodium
• B. Glucose
• C. Potassium
• D. Calcium

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Potassium. Furosemide is a diuretic that can cause potassium depletion due to increased urinary excretion. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent hypokalemia, which can lead to serious complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Sodium (choice A) levels are not typically affected by furosemide. Glucose (choice B) monitoring is important with other medications like corticosteroids but is not directly related to furosemide use. Calcium (choice D) levels are not significantly impacted by furosemide.

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