Nursing Elites

1. A client receiving chemotherapy reports nausea and vomiting. What is the nurse's priority intervention?

• A. Administer antiemetic medication before meals
• B. Encourage the client to eat small, frequent meals
• C. Instruct the client to avoid eating during treatment
• D. Provide the client with cold beverages during meals

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer antiemetic medication before meals. When a client receiving chemotherapy reports nausea and vomiting, administering antiemetic medication before meals is a priority intervention to help reduce nausea associated with chemotherapy. This proactive approach can prevent or minimize the symptoms, improving the client's quality of life during treatment. Choice B is incorrect because while encouraging the client to eat small, frequent meals can be helpful, administering antiemetic medication is the priority to address the immediate symptoms. Choice C is incorrect as avoiding eating during treatment may lead to nutritional deficits, and choice D is incorrect because providing cold beverages during meals may not effectively address the nausea and vomiting symptoms.

2. What is the priority intervention when managing a client with delirium?

• A. Administer antipsychotic medication to calm the client
• B. Identify any reversible causes of delirium
• C. Provide a low-stimulation environment
• D. Administer sedative medication to control agitation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to identify any reversible causes of delirium. Delirium is often caused by underlying issues such as infections, medication side effects, or metabolic imbalances. Addressing these root causes can help resolve delirium more effectively. Administering antipsychotic or sedative medications should not be the initial approach as they can worsen delirium in some cases. Providing a low-stimulation environment is beneficial but not the priority when reversible causes need to be addressed first.

3. A 23-year-old woman at 32-weeks gestation is seen in the outpatient clinic. Which of the following findings, if assessed by the nurse, would indicate a possible complication?

• A. The client's urine test is positive for glucose and acetone
• B. The client has 1+ pedal edema in both feet at the end of the day
• C. The client complains of an increase in vaginal discharge
• D. The client says she feels pressure against her diaphragm when the baby moves

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Positive urine glucose and acetone could indicate gestational diabetes or preeclampsia, both of which are complications. Choice B, pedal edema, is common in pregnancy but may also be a sign of preeclampsia if severe. Choice C, an increase in vaginal discharge, is a normal finding in pregnancy due to hormonal changes. Choice D, pressure against the diaphragm when the baby moves, is a normal sensation due to the growing uterus displacing abdominal contents.

4. What are the key differences between systolic and diastolic heart failure?

• A. Systolic: Reduced ejection fraction; Diastolic: Preserved ejection fraction
• B. Systolic: Preserved ejection fraction; Diastolic: Reduced ejection fraction
• C. Systolic: Right-sided heart failure; Diastolic: Left-sided heart failure
• D. Systolic: Pulmonary congestion; Diastolic: Systemic congestion

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Systolic heart failure is characterized by reduced ejection fraction, meaning the heart is not pumping effectively. Diastolic heart failure, on the other hand, is characterized by preserved ejection fraction, indicating that the heart has difficulty relaxing and filling properly. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately describe the key differences between systolic and diastolic heart failure.

5. Which of the following findings should the nurse anticipate in the medical record of a client with a pressure ulcer?

• A. Serum albumin level of 3 g/dL
• B. Braden scale score of 20
• C. Norton scale score of 18
• D. Hemoglobin level of 13 g/dL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Serum albumin level of 3 g/dL. A serum albumin level of 3 g/dL indicates poor nutrition, which is commonly seen in clients with pressure ulcers. Choice B, a Braden scale score of 20, is incorrect because a higher Braden scale score indicates a lower risk of developing pressure ulcers. Choice C, a Norton scale score of 18, is incorrect as it is a tool used to assess the risk of developing pressure ulcers, not a finding in a client with an existing pressure ulcer. Choice D, a hemoglobin level of 13 g/dL, is unrelated to pressure ulcers and does not directly reflect the nutritional status associated with this condition.

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