Nursing Elites

1. A client receiving chemotherapy reports nausea and vomiting. What is the nurse's priority intervention?

• A. Administer antiemetic medication before meals
• B. Encourage the client to eat small, frequent meals
• C. Instruct the client to avoid eating during treatment
• D. Provide the client with cold beverages during meals

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer antiemetic medication before meals. When a client receiving chemotherapy reports nausea and vomiting, administering antiemetic medication before meals is a priority intervention to help reduce nausea associated with chemotherapy. This proactive approach can prevent or minimize the symptoms, improving the client's quality of life during treatment. Choice B is incorrect because while encouraging the client to eat small, frequent meals can be helpful, administering antiemetic medication is the priority to address the immediate symptoms. Choice C is incorrect as avoiding eating during treatment may lead to nutritional deficits, and choice D is incorrect because providing cold beverages during meals may not effectively address the nausea and vomiting symptoms.

2. A client with diabetes is being discharged. What is the most important teaching point?

• A. Monitor blood sugar levels once in the morning
• B. Administer insulin before meals as prescribed
• C. Take medication only when feeling unwell
• D. Monitor glucose levels weekly

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most important teaching point for a client with diabetes being discharged is to administer insulin before meals as prescribed. This is crucial for managing blood sugar levels effectively and preventing complications. Monitoring blood sugar levels once in the morning (Choice A) is not sufficient for proper diabetes management, as levels can fluctuate throughout the day. Taking medication only when feeling unwell (Choice C) is not recommended as diabetes treatment is based on a regular schedule. Monitoring glucose levels weekly (Choice D) is not frequent enough to provide the necessary information for managing diabetes on a day-to-day basis.

3. A charge nurse on a medical-surgical unit is planning assignments for a licensed practical nurse (LPN) who has been sent from the postpartum unit due to a staffing shortage for the shift. Which of the following client assignments should the nurse delegate to the LPN?

• A. A client who is postoperative following a bowel resection with an NGT set to continuous suction.
• B. A client who has fractured a femur yesterday and is experiencing shortness of breath.
• C. A client who sustained a concussion and has unequal pupils.
• D. A client who has an Hgb of 6.3 g/dl and a prescription for packed RBCs.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because the LPN can care for stable clients with complex needs, such as managing an NGT set to continuous suction. Choices B, C, and D involve clients with more acute conditions that require a higher level of assessment and intervention, making them unsuitable for delegation to an LPN. Choice B requires prompt evaluation of the shortness of breath in a client with a recent femur fracture, which is beyond the LPN's scope. Choice C involves a head injury and unequal pupils, indicating the need for neurological assessment and close monitoring. Choice D relates to a critically low hemoglobin level and the need for blood transfusion, requiring careful monitoring and potential intervention beyond the LPN's role.

4. A client is given morphine 6 mg IV push for postoperative pain. Following administration of this drug, the nurse observes the following: pulse 68, respirations 8, BP 100/68, client sleeping quietly. Which of the following nursing actions is MOST appropriate?

• A. Allow the client to sleep undisturbed
• B. Administer oxygen via facemask or nasal prongs
• C. Administer naloxone (Narcan)
• D. Place epinephrine 1:1,000 at the bedside

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer naloxone (Narcan). The client's vital signs indicate opioid-induced respiratory depression, which is a potential side effect of morphine. Naloxone is used to reverse the effects of opioids, particularly to restore normal respiratory function. Administering oxygen alone (Choice B) may not address the underlying cause of respiratory depression. Allowing the client to sleep undisturbed (Choice A) is inappropriate when signs of respiratory depression are present. Epinephrine (Choice D) is not indicated in this situation and is not used to reverse opioid effects.

5. What is the first step in assessing a patient with suspected stroke?

• A. Check for facial droop
• B. Assess speech clarity
• C. Perform a neurological assessment
• D. Call for emergency assistance

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to call for emergency assistance (Option D) when assessing a patient with suspected stroke. Time is crucial in stroke management, and activating emergency services promptly can ensure timely access to specialized care such as stroke units and treatments like thrombolytic therapy. Checking for facial droop (Option A), assessing speech clarity (Option B), and performing a neurological assessment (Option C) are important steps in evaluating a stroke but should follow the immediate action of calling for emergency assistance. These initial assessments can help confirm the suspicion of a stroke and provide valuable information to healthcare providers when they arrive. However, the priority is to ensure the patient receives appropriate care without delay by activating emergency services.

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