Nursing Elites

1. What are the key signs of increased intracranial pressure (ICP) that a nurse should monitor for?

• A. Monitor for changes in level of consciousness
• B. Check for pupil dilation
• C. Assess for bradycardia
• D. Monitor for vomiting

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Monitor for changes in the level of consciousness.' Key signs of increased intracranial pressure (ICP) include changes in the level of consciousness and pupil dilation. Assessing for bradycardia and monitoring for vomiting are not typically considered primary signs of increased ICP. While bradycardia and vomiting can occur with increased ICP, they are not as specific or sensitive as changes in consciousness and pupil dilation.

2. A client who is newly diagnosed with iron deficiency anemia needs to include foods rich in iron in their diet. Which of the following foods should the nurse recommend as having the highest amount of iron?

• A. Boiled spinach
• B. Raw carrots
• C. Boiled chicken
• D. Yogurt

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Boiled spinach is an excellent source of iron, making it a top choice for individuals with iron deficiency anemia. Spinach contains non-heme iron, which may not be absorbed as efficiently as heme iron from animal sources but is still beneficial. Raw carrots, boiled chicken, and yogurt are not as rich in iron compared to spinach. Carrots are more known for their beta-carotene content, chicken is a good source of protein but not high in iron, and yogurt does not contain significant amounts of iron.

3. When receiving change-of-shift report for a group of clients, which time-management strategy should the nurse plan to implement?

• A. Prepare a priority list of client needs for the shift
• B. Complete less time-consuming tasks first
• C. Handle urgent client needs at the end of the shift
• D. Work on each client as they are seen

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Preparing a priority list of client needs for the shift is the most effective time-management strategy for a nurse receiving change-of-shift report. This approach helps the nurse identify and address the most urgent client needs first, ensuring efficient use of time. Choice B is incorrect because focusing on less time-consuming tasks first may result in crucial tasks being delayed. Choice C is incorrect as urgent client needs should be handled promptly, not postponed until the end of the shift. Choice D is inefficient as it does not prioritize tasks based on urgency, potentially leading to delays in addressing critical client needs.

4. A nurse is preparing to administer metoclopramide 10 mg IM. Available is metoclopramide 5 mg/mL. How many mL should the nurse administer?

• A. 1 mL
• B. 2 mL
• C. 3 mL
• D. 4 mL

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To administer 10 mg of metoclopramide, the nurse should administer 2 mL (10 mg / 5 mg per mL). Therefore, the correct answer is 2 mL. Choice A (1 mL) is incorrect because it would only deliver 5 mg of metoclopramide, which is half the required dose. Choice C (3 mL) and D (4 mL) are incorrect as they would provide more than the required dose of 10 mg.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has diabetes mellitus and is experiencing hypoglycemia. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Tachycardia
• C. Hypotension
• D. Diaphoresis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Bradycardia is a common sign of hypoglycemia due to the body's response to low blood sugar. During hypoglycemia, the body releases epinephrine, leading to sympathetic nervous system activation. This can result in bradycardia as a compensatory mechanism to preserve glucose for vital organs such as the brain. Tachycardia, hypotension, and diaphoresis are more commonly associated with hypoglycemia when it progresses to severe stages and the body's compensatory mechanisms are overwhelmed.

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