ATI LPN
ATI NCLEX PN Predictor Test
1. What are the key signs of increased intracranial pressure (ICP) that a nurse should monitor for?
- A. Monitor for changes in level of consciousness
- B. Check for pupil dilation
- C. Assess for bradycardia
- D. Monitor for vomiting
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Monitor for changes in the level of consciousness.' Key signs of increased intracranial pressure (ICP) include changes in the level of consciousness and pupil dilation. Assessing for bradycardia and monitoring for vomiting are not typically considered primary signs of increased ICP. While bradycardia and vomiting can occur with increased ICP, they are not as specific or sensitive as changes in consciousness and pupil dilation.
2. Which intervention is most important for a client with rheumatoid arthritis?
- A. Massage inflamed joints with creams and oils
- B. Provide support to flexed joints with pillows and pads
- C. Position the client on their abdomen several times a day
- D. Assist with heat application and range of motion exercises
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The most important intervention for a client with rheumatoid arthritis is to assist with heat application and range of motion exercises. Heat application helps reduce stiffness and improve joint flexibility, while range of motion exercises help maintain mobility and prevent contractures. Massaging inflamed joints with creams and oils may provide temporary relief but does not address the root cause of stiffness and limited mobility in rheumatoid arthritis. Providing support to flexed joints with pillows and pads can be helpful for comfort but does not actively promote mobility. Positioning the client on their abdomen several times a day is not a standard intervention for managing rheumatoid arthritis.
3. When collecting data from a client with posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD), which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect?
- A. Amnesia
- B. Hypervigilance
- C. Hallucinations
- D. Severe agitation
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct manifestation to expect when collecting data from a client with PTSD is hypervigilance. Hypervigilance refers to increased alertness, which is a common symptom of PTSD. This heightened state of awareness is characterized by an exaggerated startle response, being easily startled, and constantly scanning the environment for potential threats. Amnesia (choice A) is not typically a primary manifestation of PTSD; it is more commonly associated with dissociative disorders. Hallucinations (choice C) involve perceiving things that are not present and are not typically a hallmark symptom of PTSD. Severe agitation (choice D) may occur in individuals with PTSD, but hypervigilance is a more specific and common manifestation associated with this disorder.
4. A nurse has agreed to serve as an interpreter for an older adult client who is assigned to another nurse. Which of the following statements by the nurse indicates an understanding of this role?
- A. I will let the client know that I am available as the interpreter.
- B. I will receive a small fee for interpreting for this client.
- C. I am glad I am available today, but when I am not, you can use a family member.
- D. I will let the client know that an interpreter is unavailable during the night shift.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Choice A is correct because the nurse should inform the client of their availability to interpret, ensuring that communication is clear and culturally appropriate. Choice B is incorrect as interpreters in healthcare settings usually do not receive fees for providing interpretation services. Choice C is incorrect because suggesting the use of a family member as an interpreter may not ensure accurate communication, as they may not be trained or impartial. Choice D is incorrect because stating that an interpreter is unavailable during the night shift does not address the current situation where the nurse has agreed to interpret for the client.
5. What is the best dietary recommendation for a patient with chronic kidney disease?
- A. Low-protein diet
- B. High-protein diet
- C. Low-sodium diet
- D. High-sodium diet
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is a low-protein diet for a patient with chronic kidney disease. In chronic kidney disease, the kidneys may have difficulty filtering waste products from protein metabolism, leading to a buildup of toxins in the body. Therefore, reducing protein intake can help lessen the workload on the kidneys. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. A high-protein diet would increase the workload on the kidneys, while a low-sodium diet is beneficial for conditions like hypertension or heart failure but not specifically targeted for chronic kidney disease. A high-sodium diet can worsen fluid retention and hypertension in patients with kidney disease.
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