Nursing Elites

1. What are the key nursing interventions for a patient receiving diuretic therapy?

• A. Monitor electrolyte levels and administer potassium as needed
• B. Restrict fluid intake and provide a low-sodium diet
• C. Encourage oral fluids and increase dietary potassium
• D. Provide high-sodium foods to improve electrolyte balance

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Monitor electrolyte levels and administer potassium as needed. Patients on diuretic therapy are at risk of electrolyte imbalances, particularly low potassium levels. Monitoring electrolytes and administering potassium as needed are crucial nursing interventions to prevent imbalances. Choice B is incorrect because restricting fluid intake and providing a low-sodium diet are not typically indicated for patients on diuretic therapy. Choice C is incorrect as encouraging oral fluids and increasing dietary potassium can exacerbate electrolyte imbalances in patients on diuretics. Choice D is incorrect as providing high-sodium foods would worsen electrolyte balance issues in patients on diuretic therapy.

2. A client who had a vaginal delivery 4 hours ago has a fourth-degree perineal laceration. Which of the following interventions should the nurse recommend?

• A. Encourage ambulation
• B. Apply ice packs
• C. Restrict the client's fluid intake
• D. Administer stool softeners

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Correct Answer: Applying ice packs is the most appropriate intervention for a client with a fourth-degree perineal laceration. Ice packs help reduce swelling and promote comfort, aiding in the healing process. Choice A, encouraging ambulation, may not be suitable immediately after a fourth-degree laceration due to the need for rest and proper wound care. Choice C, restricting fluid intake, is not indicated and can lead to dehydration, which is not beneficial for wound healing. Choice D, administering stool softeners, may be necessary to prevent constipation and straining, but it is not the priority intervention at this time.

3. What are the complications of untreated hypertension?

• A. Heart disease and stroke
• B. Kidney failure and vision loss
• C. Pulmonary embolism and arrhythmias
• D. Blood clots and gastrointestinal bleeding

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Heart disease and stroke.' Untreated hypertension can lead to various complications, including heart disease and stroke. These are common outcomes of long-term high blood pressure. Choice B, 'Kidney failure and vision loss,' is incorrect as kidney failure and vision loss are more commonly associated with diabetic complications rather than untreated hypertension. Choice C, 'Pulmonary embolism and arrhythmias,' while serious, are not among the primary complications of untreated hypertension. Choice D, 'Blood clots and gastrointestinal bleeding,' are not typical complications of untreated hypertension but can occur due to other conditions such as blood clotting disorders or gastrointestinal diseases.

4. How should a healthcare professional assess a patient with dehydration?

• A. Monitor skin turgor and check urine output
• B. Assess for jugular venous distention
• C. Auscultate lung sounds and monitor for fever
• D. Monitor for cyanosis and increased respiratory rate

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct Answer: When assessing a patient for dehydration, healthcare professionals should monitor skin turgor, as it indicates the degree of dehydration, and check urine output, as decreased urine output can be a sign of dehydration. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not directly assess for dehydration. Assessing for jugular venous distention (B) is more relevant for heart failure, auscultating lung sounds and monitoring for fever (C) are more relevant for respiratory infections, and monitoring for cyanosis and increased respiratory rate (D) are more indicative of respiratory distress rather than dehydration.

5. A healthcare professional is reviewing the medical records of a client who has a pressure ulcer. Which of the following is an expected finding?

• A. Serum albumin level of 3 g/dL
• B. HDL level of 90 mg/dL
• C. Norton scale score of 18
• D. Braden scale score of 20

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A serum albumin level of 3 g/dL is indicative of poor nutrition, which is commonly associated with pressure ulcers. This finding suggests that the client may be at risk for developing or already has a pressure ulcer due to malnutrition. High-density lipoprotein (HDL) level of 90 mg/dL (Choice B) is not directly related to pressure ulcers. The Norton scale (Choice C) is used to assess a client's risk of developing pressure ulcers, not as a finding in a client with an existing pressure ulcer. The Braden scale (Choice D) is also a tool used to assess the risk of developing pressure ulcers, not a finding in a client with an existing pressure ulcer.

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